I was doing a dice related calculation, while encountering this interesting problem.
Assuming I'm rolling 2 dice, and an outcome of 1 or 2 count as a success ($\lambda = 1/3\cdot2$). A CDF of poisson distribution at $k = 2$ gives a result of $0.9697878915060072$, but we all know it should add up to $1$ since there could be no other outcomes other than $0,1$ and $2$.
How did this happen?
p.s. If it helps, I get the CDF calculated using the function scipy.stats.poisson.cdf(2, 2/3)
Best Answer
Let $X$ be the number of Successes (1 or 2) when rolling two fair dice independently. Then $X \sim \mathsf{Binom}(n = 2, p = 1/3).$ Then $P(X = k) = {2\choose k}(1/3)^k(2/3)^{2-k},$ for $k = 0, 1, 2.$ You can make the table of this distribution in R (ignore row numbers in brackets [ ]).
Also, $E(X) = np = 2/3 = 0(4/9) + 1(4/9) + 2(1/9).$
There are useful instances in which a Poisson distribution with the same mean as a binomial distribution gives a close approximation to the binomial distribution. But this is not such an instance.
If $Y \sim \mathsf{Pois}(\lambda=2/3),$ then the distribution table for $Y$ is shown below. Its probabilities are quite different from those in the distribution of $X$ above.
Along with @saulspatz, I wonder what a Poisson distribution has to do with this. Was there another question beyond computing the probability distribution of $X?$
Addendum per Comments: on Poisson approximation to Binomial distributions. Especially if $n$ is large and $p$ is small, Poisson approximations to Binomial distributions may be useful: Consider $\mathsf{Binom}(n=200, p=.02)$ with mean 4, and $\mathsf{Pois}(\lambda =4).$