Quantum Mechanics – Why is the Position Operator Acting on a State Equivalent to Position Times the Wave Function in the Position Basis

hilbert-spaceoperatorsquantum mechanics

In the position basis, we define the basis kets $\vert x\rangle$ like this:
$$\hat{x}\vert x \rangle = x \vert x \rangle \quad \forall x\in\mathbb{R}.$$
We also have that for any state $\vert \psi \rangle$, $\langle x \vert \psi \rangle = \psi(x)$, the wave function in the x-basis. My lecturer then claims that it is 'obvious' that $\hat{x} \vert \psi \rangle = x\psi(x).$

Note we are working in only one dimension at the moment for simplicity.

I tried using the completeness condition:
$$\hat{x} \vert \psi \rangle = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dx \;\hat{x} \vert x \rangle \langle x \vert \psi \rangle.$$
Then, using the definition of the $\vert x \rangle$ kets and the fact that $\langle x \vert \psi \rangle = \psi(x)$:
$$\hat{x} \vert \psi \rangle = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx \; x \vert x \rangle \psi(x)$$
I don't see where to go from here.

Best Answer

Your lecturer is mistaken. The correct equation is $$\langle x\rvert\hat x\lvert\psi\rangle = x\psi(x).$$ We can easily see that the given equation is wrong from the fact that $\hat x\lvert\psi\rangle$ is a ket, i.e. a vector in the state space, while $x\psi(x)$ is a complex number, i.e. a scalar, so they cannot possibly be equal. To correct this, we note that $x\psi(x)$ is equal to the "component" of $\hat x\lvert\psi\rangle$ in the "$\lvert x\rangle$ direction," so the expression on the left needs to multiplied by the bra $\langle x\rvert$ to get the appropriate scalar.

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