Newtonian Mechanics – Is Orbital Angular Momentum Conserved for Point Masses?

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The introduction of the angular momentum as $\vec l = \vec r \times \vec p$ is also true for point particles. So $\vec l$ must refer to the orbital angular momentum (and not the "spin") in such a case.

If I have a particle moving straight with constant velocity and then I apply a force $\vec F$ perpendicular to the moving direction, I created a torque $\vec M = \vec{r} \times \vec{F}$ that creates the orbital angular momentum $\vec l \neq 0$. Now conservation of angular momentum says that $\vec l$ stays the same when the torque vanishes.

But wouldn't this mean that the point mass has to fly an endless circle without any force? This is in total contradiction to Newton's laws that a particle moves a straight line without force. Why isn't angular momentum conserved in this case? What actually is angular momentum, then?

Best Answer

Imagine you had a particle traveling at constant $\mathbf{v_0} = \dot{z_0}\mathbf{\hat{k}}$ upwards. At time $t = 0$, your particle is at $\mathbf{r} = z_0 \mathbf{\hat{k}}$ and you apply an horizontal force $\mathbf{F} = -F\mathbf{\hat{i}}$, constant $F$, for time $\Delta t$.

The particle was subect to a force, so its velocity was at every instant of application of the force: $$ \mathbf{v} = \mathbf{v}_0 + \Delta \mathbf{v} = \mathbf{v}_0 + \int_0^t\frac{d \mathbf{v}}{dt} dt = \mathbf{v}_0 + \int_0^t \mathbf{a} dt = \mathbf{v}_0 + \int_0^t \frac{\mathbf{F}}{m} dt $$ but the last integral really is just Newton's second law and: $$ \int_0^t \frac{\mathbf{F}}{m} dt = -\frac{F}{m} t \mathbf{\hat{i}} $$ and the final speed: $$ \mathbf{v}(t) = \dot{z_0}\mathbf{\hat{k}} -\frac{F}{m} t \mathbf{\hat{i}} \Longrightarrow \mathbf{v}(\Delta t) = \dot{z_0}\mathbf{\hat{k}} -\frac{F}{m} \Delta t \mathbf{\hat{i}} = \mathbf{v}'. $$ Its position is also given by integrating the last equation: $$ \mathbf{r}(t) = \mathbf{r_0} + \Delta \mathbf{ r} = (z_0 + \dot{z}_0 t)\mathbf{\hat{k}} - \frac{1}{2}\frac{F}{m}t^2 \mathbf{\hat{i}} \Longrightarrow \mathbf{r}(\Delta t) = (z_0 + \dot{z}_0 \Delta t)\mathbf{\hat{k}} - \frac{1}{2}\frac{F}{m}(\Delta t)^2 \mathbf{\hat{i}} = \mathbf{r'} $$ After the torque/force ends, it stops accelerating and therefore just travels rectilinearly through space with $\mathbf{v}'$. In the same coordinate system, you can check that angular momentum is, after calculating speed and position (reset the clock, so we can start at $t = 0$ again, that's licit, we "stored" everything that happened before on the $\Delta t$s, $\mathbf{r}'$ and $\mathbf{v}'$): $$ \mathbf{r}(t) = \mathbf{r}' + \mathbf{v}' t $$ $$ \mathbf{v}(t) = \mathbf{v}' $$ $$ \mathbf{L}(t) = \mathbf{r}(t) \times \mathbf{p}(t) = m \mathbf{r}(t) \times \mathbf{v}(t) = m(\mathbf{r}' + \mathbf{v}' t) \times \mathbf{v}' = m\mathbf{r}' \times \mathbf{v}' $$ notice that the primed vectors are constant, so this new angular momentum also is. So you really get rectilinear motion and constant angular momentum in the end.

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