Quantum Mechanics – Why Scattering States Are Orthogonal

hilbert-spacemathematical physicsquantum mechanicss-matrix-theoryscattering

A similar question was asked here. Unfortunately, I don't think the question was well-formulated/explained enough for people to actually care about the answer, so let me provide some reason to why I'm thinking about this question.

BACKGROUND.
First consider the simple Hamiltonian $H=-\Delta$ on $L^2(\mathbb{R})$, so that the "scattering states" are given by $e^{ikx}$. What this actually means is that if $f,g$ were "linear combinations" of the scattering states $e^{ikx}$ such that the corresponding coefficients were normalizable $\int |f(k)|^2 <\infty$, then we have the well-defined relationship
$$
\langle f|g\rangle = \int \bar{f}(k)g(k)
$$

Also, the scattering states $e^{ikx}$ "diagonalize" H and in fact, we have
$$
\langle f|Hf\rangle=\int k^2 |f(k)|^2
$$

This (rigorously) implies that any function which can be decomposed into the "linear combination" of scattering states $e^{ikx}$ and actually lives in the Hilbert space $L^2(\mathbb{R}$ (normalizable) is indeed a "scattering state", i.e., $f$ is an absolutely continuous wave function of $H$ (think of this as a rigorous definition of the scattering subspace). In this case, it just so happens that the all wavefunctions in $L^2(\mathbb{R})$ are "scattering states".

However, once we have some complicated Hamiltonian, it's possible that $H$ has both scattering states and bounded states (absolutely continuous and pure point spectrum). However, it would be nice to obtain functions $\phi_k (x)$ which satisfy the same orthogonality relationship as the plane waves $e^{ikx}$, i.e., formally written as
$$
\langle \phi_{k'} |\phi_{k}\rangle = \delta(k'-k)
$$

And also "diagonalize" the Hamiltonian with some spectrum $\epsilon_{k}$. This way, if $f$ is a "linear combination" of scattering states $\phi_k$ such that the coefficients $f(k)$ are normalizable ($L^2$), we would still have the nice relationships
$$
\langle f|g\rangle = \int \bar{f}(k)g(k), \quad \langle f|Hf\rangle = \int \epsilon(k)|f(k)|^2
$$

PROBLEM. Now, I know that there are indeed rigorous proofs of the existence of scattering states $\phi_k$ (cf. Barry Simon Vol 3). However, they are quite complicated and tedious to actually go through, so I though it would be much more insightful to just work through a one-dimensional example. Indeed, usually the ansatz (left incoming) scattering states is given by
\begin{align}
\phi_k (x) &= e^{ikx} +r_ke^{-ikx}, \quad x<0 \\
&= t_k e^{ikx}, \quad x>0
\end{align}

where $|r_k|^2+|t_k|^2 =1$ and $\bar{r}_k t_k +\bar{t}_k r_k =0$. (You also have right-incoming states but let me ignore those for now). Now of course, since there's some potential $V$ near $x=0$, the scattering states $\phi_k$ is somewhat different near $x$, but let's consider the limiting case where the region of nonzero $V$ is quite small just for simplicity. Then you would think that just from the unitary property of the $S$-matrix (i.e., the relationship between $r_k,t_k$), we should be able to prove that
$$
\langle \phi_{k'} |\phi_k\rangle = \delta(k'-k)
$$

However, writing this out actually involves knowing the relationship of $r,t$ for different $k',k$. For example, we would need to know that $\bar{r}_{k'} r_k + \bar{t}_{k'} t_k=1$ for this orthogonality to hold, but in general, we do not have this. Indeed, the main problem is that since we are integrating from $-\infty \to 0$ or $0\to \infty$ instead of $-\infty \to\infty$, we have an extra term, e.g.,
$$
\int_{-\infty}^0 e^{-i(k'-k)x} = \frac{i}{k'-k+i0^+} = i \text{p.v.}\left( \frac{1}{k'-k} \right) +\pi \delta(k'-k)
$$

While
$$
\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-i(k'-k)x} = 2\pi \delta(k'-k)
$$

EDIT. @Andrew has provided a simple example here, or more specifically, Problem 11.3, in which all the problems magically cancel each other out and we obtain the nice looking formula
$$
\langle \phi_{k'}|\phi_k \rangle = \delta(k'-k).
$$

Very odd indeed!

EDIT. The rigorous proof can be found in Barry Simon Vol 3
, section Quantum Scattering III: Eigenfunction expansion

Best Answer

So, I thought I should provide a sketch of the proof. I will be a little sloppy with regularization, but if you go through everything rigorously, the basic idea is the same. Indeed, from the link, we have $$ r_k = \frac{i}{k-i}, \quad t_k = \frac{k}{k-i} $$ Where I have set the unimportant constants to $=1$. Then we have \begin{align} \langle \phi_{k'} |\phi_k\rangle &=\int_{-\infty}^0 \left(e^{-i(k'-k)x} + \bar{r}_{k'} r_k e^{+i(k'-k)x} +\bar{r}_{k'} e^{i(k'+k)x} +r_k e^{-i(k'+k)x}\right) +\int_0^\infty \bar{t}_{k'} t_k e^{-i(k'-k)x} \\ &=\frac{i}{k'-k +i0^+} +(\bar{r}_{k'}r_k+\bar{t}_{k'}t_k) \frac{i}{k-k'+i0^+} +r_k \frac{i}{k'+k+i0^+}-\bar{r}_{k'} \frac{i}{k'+k-i0^+} \end{align} Notice that $$ \bar{r}_{k'}r_k+\bar{t}_{k'}t_k = 1 - \frac{i(k-k')}{(k'+i)(k-i)} $$ And that $$ r_k \frac{i}{k'+k+i0^+}-\bar{r}_{k'} \frac{i}{k'+k-i0^+} = -\frac{1}{(k'+i)(k-i)} $$ Hence, we have $$ \langle \phi_{k'} |\phi_k\rangle = (2\pi) \delta(k'-k) $$