Spacetime Interval – What is the Intuition Behind the Spacetime Interval?

invariantsmetric-tensorspacetimespecial-relativity

In an article that I am currently reading (under the Lorentz Invariants sub-heading), it explains that, just as the distance between two points on a Cartesian plane are obviously invariant of the coordinate system, the “spacetime distance” is also invariant. While in Cartesian coordinates $$(x_1-x_2)^2+(y_1-y_2)^2 = (x_1'-x_2')^2+ (y_1'-y_2')^2,$$ the space time analog is $$c^2(t_1-t_2)^2-(x_1-x_2)^2 = c^2(t_1'-t_2')^2- (x_1'-x_2')^2 = s^2$$ where $s^2$ is the spacetime interval.

I am having difficulty in understanding this notion of a spacetime interval and the intuition/derivation for why it can be written in this way and is invariant under Lorentz transformation.

I am aware that similar questions have been asked on this platform but none of them have fully cleared things up for me so far. Any help in providing an intuition or understanding would be appreciated.

Best Answer

You have two great answers, but you might find it interesting to know that it was once common for spacetime in SR to be described with an imaginary time axis. That allowed people to consider that it was a straightforward Cartesian arrangement, where the calculation of a length was through the usual Pythagorean method of taking the square root of the squares of the component displacements along the four orthogonal axes. The fact that the time axis was iT meant that when you squared the displacement along the time axis you automatically got minus T squared.

The idea of an imaginary time axis also made the Lorenz transformation look like straightforward rotations in a 4D space, so some people thought that would make SR easier to grasp if described in that way. However, it turns out that using an imaginary time axis only works straightforwardly for SR, and causes all kinds of complications in GR, so it dropped out of fashion.

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