Liouville’s Theorem – Punchline of Liouville’s Theorem

conservation-lawshamiltonian-formalismphase-spacestatistical mechanicstime evolution

Reif's Fundamentals of Statistical and Thermal Physics, pages 627-628, presents Liouville's theorem. I do not understand the punchline. Starting with Hamilton's equations, they derive

$$\frac{\partial\rho}{\partial t}=-\sum_{i=1}^f\left(\frac{\partial\rho}{\partial q_i}\dot{q_i}+\frac{\partial\rho}{\partial p_i}\dot{p_i}\right)$$

where $\rho$ is the density of systems in phase space, f is the degrees of freedom and q and p are the canonical coordinates.

and from there

$$\frac{\partial\rho}{\partial t}=-\sum\left(\frac{\partial\rho}{\partial q_i}\frac{\partial H}{\partial p_i}-\frac{\partial\rho}{\partial p_i}\frac{\partial H}{\partial q_i}\right).$$

I'm fine with that. Then they go on to say

"Suppose that at any give time… the systems are uniformly distributed over all of phase space. Or, more generally, suppose that $\rho$ is at time $t$ only a function of the energy $E$ of the system, this energy being a constant of the motion.

Then

$\frac{\partial \rho}{\partial q_i}=\frac{\partial\rho}{\partial E}\frac{\partial E}{\partial q_i}=0$

I am unable to understand why this follows from the italicized supposition. For example, couldn't we have
$E=\frac{p^2}{2m}+\frac{1}{2}kq^2$ and $\frac{\partial E}{\partial q}\ne0$?

Best Answer

If $\rho(H)$ is a function of the energy only (the Hamiltonian), then $$ \frac{\partial \rho}{\partial q_i}=\frac{\partial \rho}{\partial H}\frac{\partial H}{\partial q_i}, \frac{\partial \rho}{\partial p_i}=\frac{\partial \rho}{\partial H}\frac{\partial H}{\partial p_i}. $$ Then $$ \frac{\partial \rho}{\partial t}=-\sum_i\left[\frac{\partial \rho}{\partial H}\frac{\partial H}{\partial q_i}\frac{\partial H}{\partial p_i}- \frac{\partial \rho}{\partial H}\frac{\partial H}{\partial p_i}\frac{\partial H}{\partial q_i}\right]=0, $$ because the two terms in the brackets are identical.

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