Consider the following two cases,
Case 1 – A coil moving through a constant magnetic field
Case 2 – A conductor moving through a constant magnetic field
Now, in Case 1 (a coil moving through a constant magnetic field) the induced current is zero, whilst in case 2, there is an induced EMF.
Is the reason that there is no induced current in case 1 because current gets induced equally on either side of the coil and it therefore cancels out. This would be concordant with case 2, as in case 2 a conductor likewise moves through a constant magnetic field and is able to induce an EMF.
OR
Is the reason that there is no induced current in case 1 because there is no change in flux. This appears to not be in line with case 2, as in case to, there is likewise 'no change in flux' but an EMF is induced.
Thanks
Best Answer
Clarification from another source:
Source: Physics For Scientists And Engineers, Paul A. Tipler and Gene Mosca, Sixth Edition, W. H. Freeman and Company, New York, 2008, p. 971, Fig. 28-20. I maintain that the loop will act the same as the bar. In other words, if you cut a thin slit down the center of the bar and less than the length of the bar (you leave it as one bar, not two,) the situations are exactly equivalent.