[Physics] Why is the force acting down on an object submerged in a fluid only equal to the force of gravity

buoyancy

I was reading through a solution to the following problem:

What acceleration will a completely submerged object experience if its density is three times that of the fluid in which it is submerged?

The solution states $F_\text{down} – F_\text{buoyancy} = m_\text{object}a_\text{object}$. This is reasonable so far, but then it states that $F_\text{down} = F_\text{weight}$. This confuses me; if an object is completely submerged then doesn't it have both the force of gravity and the force of the liquid above it pushing it down? In other words, isn't the force pushing it down equal to $F_g + \rho ghA$ where $A$ is the area of the surface of the object, $h$ is the depth at which the object is submerged, and $\rho$ is the density of the liquid? What am I missing?

Best Answer

Expanding on @SebastianRiese's comment, the buoyant force already takes care of the downward force caused by the upper liquids. Lets consider the problem from a physical perspective. There is the downward force from gravitation, the downward force from the liquid above, and the upward force from the liquid above.

enter image description here

In the diagram, the gravitational force isn't shown but the pressures causing the upward and downward forces from the liquid are shown. The buoyant force is calculated from subtracting these two pressures and multiplying by the cross-sectional area:

$F_b = (P_B - P_T)A = (\rho g(y+h) - \rho gy)A = \rho ghA = \rho gV$

Hence, the net force is

$F_{net} = F_g - F_b = F_g - (F_T - F_B) = F_g + F_T - F_B = F_{downward} - F_{upward}$

Hence, the buoyant force already takes into account the downward force caused by the liquids above.