[Physics] Why are one-particle states called irreducible representations of Poincaré group

group-representationsgroup-theorypoincare-symmetryquantum-field-theoryspecial-relativity

The one-particle states in the Hilbert space of a quantized relativistic field theory are said to form irreducible representations of the Poincaré group. Why is that? I mean, popular texts in QFT do not explicitly construct any representation but simply state that one-particle states are representations. Is this so obvious? If not, how can one understand/ensure that they indeed form irreducible representation of the Poincaré group?

EDIT: Moreover, one-particle states are supposed to be the irreducible representations of Poincaré group. Does it mean that any representation which is labelled by unique values of Casimir invariants are irreducible?

Best Answer

This is answered in depth in Weinberg's book on quantum field theory (Vol. I, Chapter 2).

Relativistic invariance means translation invariance and Lorentz invariance, hence - obviously - Poincare invariance, so that one has a representation of the Poincare group. Because of relativistic invariance and unitarity, the Hilbert space of a QFT carries a unitary representation of the Poincare group, and it splits (as any unitary representation) into a direct sum of irreducible ones. Being irreducible means being not further divisible, hence elementary. One can classify them, and finds that they describe single relativistic particles, hence elementary particles.

Irreducible representations have constant Casimirs, but the values of the constants do not always characterize the irrep. In particular, all massless irreducible representations of the Poincare group have the same values for the Casimirs but may differ in helicity.

Related Question