In contrast with the previous incorrect answers that I hadn't noticed, there isn't any ambiguity or confusion about the Bose-Einstein or Fermi-Dirac statistics for composite systems such as atoms.
A particle – elementary or composite particles – that contains an even number of elementary (or other) fermions is a boson; if it contains an odd number, it is a fermion. Bosons always have an integer spin; fermions always have a half-integer spin. By the spin-statistics theorem, the wave function of two bosons is invariant under their exchange but it is antisymmetric under the exchange of two identical fermions. These two rules are theorems for elementary particles and assuming this theorem, it's also trivial to prove these statements for composite particles.
In particular, for a neutral atom, the numbers of protons and electrons are equal so their total parity is even. That's why only neutrons matter. An isotope with an even number of neutrons is a boson (the whole atom: e.g. helium-4); an isotope with an odd number of neutrons is a fermion (the whole atom: e.g. helium-3).
That doesn't mean that composite bosons exhibit all the same physical phenomena like superfluidity that we may observe with some bosons.
The magnetic moment of a charged "elementary enough" particle scales like $1/m$ where $m$ is the mass of the particle. That's why the magnetic moment of the protons, neutrons, and nuclei are about 1,000-2,000 times smaller than the magnetic moments of the electrons. That's why the nuclear spins are largely negligible for the behavior of the atom in a magnetic field.
This is no contradiction because the whole atoms have a much larger magnetic moments than the nuclei separately – because of the neutrons: atoms are not "elementary enough" in this definition. Both the electrons' spins and their orbital angular momentum contribute to an atom's magnetic moment. Also, there exist a higher number of states because an atom is a typical example of the "addition of several angular momenta". The tensor product Hilbert space may be decomposed as a direct sum of Hilbert spaces with fixed values of the total angular momentum. The degeneracy and the magnetic moment of these components depend on the total angular momentum i.e. on the relative orientation of the nucleus-based and electron-related angular momenta.
In effect, the spectral lines of the whole atom exhibit the so-called hyperfine structure. Up to some approximation, the nuclear spin may be totally ignored. But when the considerations from the previous paragraph are properly account for, each spectral line is actually split to several nearby (3 or so orders of magnitude closer to each other) finer spectral lines, each of which corresponds to a different value of the total angular momentum of the whole atom (or, equivalently, a different value of $\vec J_{\rm electrons}\cdot \vec J_{\rm nucleus}$).
Our current best experimentally verified theory, quantum field theory, isn't based on matter being particles or waves - all matter consists of excitations in quantum fields. The interactions of the quantum fields may appear particle like or wave like, so the wave-particle duality is a duality in the way the fields interact not a duality in the matter itself. The wave-particle duality is just a consequence of using approximate descriptions like the Schrödinger equation, and if we had discovered QFT before the Schrödinger equation generations of physics students would have been spared the confusion.
So wave-particle duality is not down to the fermion-boson distinction. You're quite correct that it's usually experimentally hard to see wave behaviour with fermions, but this is because it's hard to make coherent waves from any massive particles and all known fermions are massive. It would be just as hard to see wave behaviour with bosons, though of course it is routinely done with composite bosons like atoms or even buckyballs.
As Vibert points out, it's no harder to see particle like behaviour with photons than it is with electrons.
Best Answer
Bosons by definition have integer spin, while Fermions have half integer spin. Neutrons and protons are Fermions, but $He^4$ has both neutron and proton spins oppositely aligned so it's total spin is 0 (hence a Boson). $He^3$ on the other hand has the proton spins oppositely aligned (total spin 0) but the remaining neutron has spin 1/2 . Thus the spin of $He^3$ is 1/2 (Fermion).