[Physics] Wave function not normalizable

hilbert-spacenormalizationquantum mechanicswavefunction

Does the solution of the Schrodinger equation always have to be normalizable? By normalizable I mean, given a wavefunction $\psi(x)$

$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx<\infty \qquad \text{or}\qquad \int_{0}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx <\infty$$

What would be the physical implications if one (or both) of those integrals diverges. From the viewpoint that the Copenhagen interpretation is one of the most popular and the wave function is interpretated as a probability distribution in this case; will the wavefunction diverging be valid for any other interpretation of quantum mechanics. Does anyone know any wavefunctions which are not normalizable? What if there was a singularity at 0 that made it diverge at all times. For instance

$$\int_{0}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx \to\infty\quad \text{but}\quad \int_{a}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx <\infty $$

where $a>0.$ Would the second integral count as a valid pdf?

Best Answer

From my limited knowledge of this subject, I would say that a non-normalizable wave-function wouldn't really make any physical sense.

Remember, the wave-function is a function whose value squared evaluated between two points represents the probability that the particle will be found between those two points. So, the restriction that wave functions be normalized is basically just a nod to reality - the particle must be found SOMEWHERE.

Normally, the restriction is: $$ \int_{-\infty}^ {\infty} |\psi(x)|^{2} dx = 1, $$ i.e. the probability of finding the particle if you looked between $-\infty$ and $\infty$ is 1. Having a probability greater than one of finding the particle between these bounds would not make any physical sense.

Having a wave-function described by the equations you posted above would imply that there is an infinite chance of finding the particle anywhere.