[Physics] Vibrating string, free end boundary condition

boundary conditionsstringwaves

When discussing the vibrating string problem with one end (or both) free to move in the vertical direction but constrained in the longitudinal direction (achieved by placing the "free" end in a frictionless sleeve for example), it is generally accepted that the proper boundary condition to impose at that end is the homogeneous Neumann condition, that is $\frac{\partial u} {\partial x} = 0$ where $u$ is the vertical displacement and $x$ is the longitudinal space coordinate.

I have looked in a few books, and couldn't find a rigorous explanation of why this boundary condition should be enforced, the authors usually vaguely stating that this is due to the lack of force at the open end. Has someone encountered a more detailed explanation of this?

Best Answer

The open boundary condition means, as stated in the question, that at the boundary no force acts on the end of the string in the direction of elongation.

As the tip of the string has infinitesimal mass, we can argue as if we were considering conditions for static equilibrium (if the forces caused by the string would differ from the forces caused by the wall by a finite amount, the end of the string would be accelerated infinitely which is unphysical).

The forces acting on the end of the string can easily be analysed: The force acts in the direction of the string (because an ideal string has, by defintion, no resistance to bending) and is equal in magnitude to the tension of the string.

This means that there is no force parallel to the boundary if the direction of the string is perpendicular to the surface. This condition can obviously be encoded in the requirement that $\partial_x u = 0$ (as $u$ is the $y$ coordinate of the string at position $x$, so the string is perpendicular to the boundary if the slope of the graph is zero).

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