[Physics] the direction of propagating waves of the form $e^{ikx}$

conventionsquantum mechanicsschroedinger equationwavefunctionwaves

Suppose we are given a wavefunction
$$\psi(x) = Ae^{ikx} + Be^{-ikx}.$$

After some internet research I found that

When coupled to the usual time-dependent energy (phase) factors in the full TDSE solution, then the $e^{ikx}$ terms give right-going waves and the $e
^{−ikx}$ terms give left-going waves. Physically, the term $Ae^{ikx}$ is the incoming wave and $Be^{−ikx}$ is a reflected wave.

I know that $e^{ikx}=\sin(kx)+i\cos(kx)$, but this doesn't tell me anything about which way the wave is travelling in (positive or negative $x$?).

Why do the $e^{ikx}$ terms give right-going waves?


Edit:

I have been given a good answer by @SteveB which informed me about having to consider the real part of a wave with time dependence also and considering the consequences for values of $k$ greater than zero and less than zero for a positive $\omega$ $$f(x,t)=Re[e^{ikx-i\omega t}]=\cos(kx-\omega t)\tag{1}$$
In his answer he mentions that for $k\gt 0$ the wave will go right and for $k\lt 0$ the wave will go left.

I see by plotting graphs that the sign of $k$ flips the wave $(1)$ about the $y$-axis (or $x$-axis reflection as Cosine is even).


How can you tell the direction a wave is travelling in just by looking at which way it is oscillating about the $y$-axis?

Best Answer

If a wave is $f(x,t)=Re[e^{ikx-i\omega t}]$ with $\omega>0$, then it goes right if $k>0$ or left if $k<0$. Do you see why? Try picking two or three values of $t$ and making plots...

But,you can alternately write a wave as $f(x,t)=Re[e^{ikx+i\omega t}]$, and now it's reverse! $k>0$ is left-traveling. (In practice, it would be more common to write $f(x,t)=Re[e^{-ikx+i\omega t}]$ so that $k$ has the normal sign convention.)

So anyway, the key issue is whether the wave's time dependence is $e^{-i\omega t}$ or $e^{+i\omega t}$. It can be a tricky issue because sometimes this time-dependent factor is omitted to make the formulas look simpler. In general, one needs to look through the book or paper to see if the time-dependent factor is written down somewhere.

If they don't say it explicitly, the rule-of-thumb is: Electrical engineers almost always use $e^{+i\omega t}$ and physicists almost always use $e^{-i\omega t}$.

Luckily for you, there's one area that is completely unambiguous: The Schrodinger equation universally uses $e^{-i\omega t}$ (where $\omega=E/\hbar$). So you can count on that everywhere in quantum mechanics. That case is applicable to you.

(One could imagine an evil twin of the Schrodinger equation with the opposite sign on $i$, i.e. $-i\hbar \partial \Psi/\partial t = H\Psi$. It's objectively no less correct than the traditional Schrodinger equation, but uses $e^{+i\omega t}$ time dependence instead. Lucky for us, nobody has ever used this version, as far as I know!)