The derivative of an operator: Let $X(t),\;\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathcal{X}$, where $\mathcal{X}$ is some normed linear space, say a Banach or Hilbert space. Then we can define the derivative in the usual way: $$\partial _{t}X(t)=\lim_{\delta \rightarrow 0}\frac{X(t+\delta )-X(t)}{\delta}.$$ However, on $\mathcal{X}$ different topologies exist, strong, weak, uniform, etc. Hille and Phillips, "Functional Analysis and Semi-Groups" contains a quite readable discussion of these matters.
In general the commutator does not vanish. Consider
$$X\left(\xi\right)=U\cos\xi+V\sin\xi\Rightarrow\dfrac{dX}{d\xi}=-U\sin\xi+V\cos\xi$$
then one gets, after some algebras
$$\left[X\left(\xi\right),\dfrac{dX}{d\xi}\right]=\left[U,V\right]$$
Then it is clear that one recovers the usual result for commuting $U$ and $V$ operators.
Edit: the result is correct ! Thanks to the comments.
Two main points are....
- Generally $\langle{x}|[X,P]|\alpha\rangle \not= \langle{x}|XP|\alpha\rangle-\langle{x}|PX|\alpha\rangle$
When $[X,P]=XP-PX$ is an well-defined operator in a Hilbert space, $H=L^2([a,b])$, space of square-integrable functions in $[a,b]$, the domain of definition of $[X,P]$ is a set of functions $|\alpha\rangle$ satisfying
$|\alpha\rangle$ is in the domain of operator $X$
$|\alpha\rangle$ is in the domain of operator $P$
$P|\alpha\rangle$ is in the domain of operator $X$
$X|\alpha\rangle$ is in the domain of operator $P$
However, the domain of definition of $XP$ is a set of functions $|\alpha\rangle$ satisfying
$|\alpha\rangle$ is in the domain of operator $P$
$X|\alpha\rangle$ is in the domain of operator $P$
In the similar manner you can expect the form of the domain of $PX$.
So if you want to assert that $\langle{x}|[X,P]|\alpha\rangle = \langle{x}|XP|\alpha\rangle-\langle{x}|PX|\alpha\rangle$, you should have additional condition, $|\alpha\rangle$ is a function in the domain of $[X,P]$. Try to prove $\langle{x}|[X,P]|\alpha\rangle = \langle{x}|XP|\alpha\rangle-\langle{x}|PX|\alpha\rangle$ using $|\alpha\rangle=|p\rangle$ and Hermitianity of $X$ and $P$. You may find a contradiction.
- Delta functional
From the last segment, $\left(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}p'e^{\frac{ip'(x-x')}{\hbar}} dp'\right) \\$ is the form of Fourier transform of $p'$ and can be described by (Dirac) functional-derivative, $\delta'(x-x')$.
$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}p'e^{\frac{ip'(x-x')}{\hbar}} dp'=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}-i\hbar \frac{d}{dx}e^{\frac{ip'(x-x')}{\hbar}}dp'=-i2\pi\hbar^2 \frac{d}{dx} \delta(x-x')$.
Best Answer
Suresh is right, the Baker-Campbell-Hausdorff formula will save you. If $\left[A,B\right]$ commutes with $A$ and $B$ you have,
$$ \exp\left(A\right)\exp\left(B\right) = \exp\left(A+B+\frac{1}{2}\left[A,B\right]\right) \, .$$
Then the answer to your question is
$$ \exp\left(\partial_x\right)\exp\left(x\right) = 2 \exp\left(x+\partial_x\right) \sinh(1/2) \, .$$