[Physics] Special theory of relativity: Variation of relativistic mass with velocity

inertial-framesmassspecial-relativityvelocity

There is a topic called variation of mass with velocity. In which to get the equation of mass in relativistic case we consider collision of two particles. We take steady frame S1 and moving frame S2. When we consider moving frame S2 we assume collision of two masses, each of having same value m moving in the opposite direction to each other with the same speed. using such information we get value of velocities of the particles for corresponding steady frame S1 using velocity transformation formula. When we write equation of conservation of the momentum for the masses in steady frame S1 we consider masses to be different i.e. m1, m2. In moving frame masses are considered identical but for steady frame they are considered different. Why?

Best Answer

The simple answer to your question is that since (presumably) we're considering mass to be a function of speed, since the bodies have the same speed in S2 they will have the same mass, assuming that they are identical bodies.

I feel bound to point out, though, that it's becoming less and less common among physicists to talk about mass varying with speed. The argument concerns how to interpret the formula for the momentum, $\vec{p}$, of a body moving at velocity $\vec{u}$, speed u, namely$$\vec{p}=\gamma m_0 \vec{u}\ \ \ \text{in which}\ \ \ \gamma=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\frac{u^2}{c^2}}}.$$ Old interpretation

$m_0$, a constant for the body independent of its motion, was called the rest mass of the body. $γm_0$, which was sometimes denoted by m, was called the body's relativistic mass, and is speed-dependent. The idea of calling $γm_0$ 'relativistic mass' was that you could continue to use the Newtonian formula, $\vec{p}=m \vec{u}$, provided that you used so-called 'relativistic mass' instead of rest mass.

One of the reasons why this interpretation has fallen out of favour is that putting $γm_0 $ instead of $m_0$ doesn't make other Newtonian formulas into relativistic ones. For example, it won't make $KE=\frac{1}{2}m_0 u^2$ into the relativistic formula $$KE=(\gamma-1)m_0 c^2.$$ Modern interpretation

Instead of regarding $γm_0$ as a speed-dependent mass that, when multiplied by $\vec{u}$, gives us $\vec{p}$, it's at least as logical to regard $\vec{p}=\gamma m_0 \vec{u}\ $ as $\ \vec{p}= m_0 (\gamma \vec{u})$, that is as $m_0$, a constant for the body, multiplied by $\gamma \vec{u}$, a kinematic quantity (called proper velocity) that replaces $\vec{u}$ in the ordinary Newtonian expression.

This means that we don't call $γm_0$ 'relativistic mass'. If we want to call it anything, it's the mass equivalent of the body's total energy (KE + rest energy), $\gamma m c^2$. Remember that $c^2$ is merely a constant!

In that case there's no need to call $m_0$ 'rest mass' – it's the only sort of mass we talk about. Nor is there any need for the zero subscript! So the two formulas we quoted earlier are usually written$$\vec{p}=\gamma m \vec{u}$$and$$KE=(\gamma-1)m c^2.$$

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