Quantum Field Theory – Representations of Lorentz Group: Detailed Analysis

group-theorymathematical physicsquantum-field-theoryquantum-spinrepresentation-theory

I'd be grateful if someone could check that my exposition here is correct, and then venture an answer to the question at the end!

$SO(3)$ has a fundamental representation (spin-1), and tensor product representations (spin-$n$ for $n\in\mathbb{Z})$.

$SO(3)$ has universal covering group $SU(2)$. The fundamental representation of $SU(2)$ and its tensor product representations descend to projective representations of $SO(3)$. We call these representations spin representations of $SO(3)$ (spin-$n/2$ for $n\in \mathbb{Z}$).

The complex vector space $\mathbb{C}^2$ has elements called spinors, which transform under a rotation $R$ according to the relevant representative $D(R)$. The natural generalisation of a spinor is called a pseudotensor, and lives in the tensor product space.

We can repeat the analysis for the proper orthochronous Lorentz group $L_+^\uparrow$. We find that the universal covering group is $SL(2,\mathbb{C})$ and we get two inequivalent spin-$1/2$ projective representations of $L_+^\uparrow$, namely the fundamental and conjugate representations of $SL(2,\mathbb{C})$.

Now when we pass to the full Lorentz group, somehow the projective representations disappear and become genuine representations. Why, morally and mathematically, is this? If it's possible to give an answer without resorting to the Lie algebra, and just working with representations of the group I'd be delighted!

Many thanks in advance.

Best Answer

Now when we pass to the full Lorentz group, somehow the projective representations disappear and become genuine representations.

I don't think this is true. Some but not all of the spinor representations of the proper orthochronous Lorentz group extend to representations of the full Lorentz group; you just add parity reversal and time reversal. But the new representations are still projective.