Using $f$ for frequency, we have $λf=c$, which gives us $n={c\over v}={\lambda f\over v}$, not $n={c\over \lambda f}$.
However, we could maybe think of it as effective wavelength and frequency, perhaps $\lambda_e$ and $f_e$ and get $n={c\over \lambda_e f_e}$.
Either way, let's use your version of the equation (maybe I made a mistake there), and we get:
${c\over v}={c\over f\lambda}=n=a+{b\over \lambda^2}$
Note that the right side is not proportional to $\lambda^{-2}$ because of the leading coefficient. Take out the middle and we get:
${c\over f\lambda}=a+{b\over \lambda^2}$
${c\over f}=a\lambda + {b\over \lambda}$
Extend the equation and we get:
${c\over f}=a\lambda+{b\over \lambda}+{c\over \lambda^3}+{d\over \lambda^5}+...$ $=\sum_{i=1}^{∞}{x_i\lambda^{3-2i}}$
Alternately, if we use my version, we get:
${\lambda f\over v}=a+{b\over \lambda^2}$
${f\over v}={a\over \lambda}+{b\over \lambda^3}$
Which extends to:
${f\over v}={a\over\lambda}+{b\over \lambda^3}+{c\over \lambda^5}+{d\over \lambda^7}+...$ $=\sum_{i=1}^{∞}{x_i\lambda^{1-2i}}$
In neither case do we get a mathematical contradiction, although I don't know enough about the physics to be certain there's no physical contradiction (though I somehow doubt such a contradiction would have gone unnoticed for this long).
Note the Wikipedia article says the Cauchy equation is only valid near the visible light spectrum (around 800-400 nm as I recall$^1$). It lists the first two coefficients for glass as ~1.5 and ~0.005 $\mu m^2$ (depending on the glass). So we need to graph things around x=0.4-0.8 for those coefficients to make sense. Here's the graph with the red line as $y=a$ and the blue line as $y={b\over x^2}$ -- notice how $a$ dominates at these wavelengths.
![Cauchy equation with a=1.5, b=0.005 um^2, y=a, y=b/x^2 from x=0.4um to 0.8 um](https://i.stack.imgur.com/lRCFk.png)
$^1$ It's actually 400-700 nm according to Wikipedia. Still, close enough.
Best Answer
I don't know what your teacher thought about while saying this, but this is not true. The power of the lens does depend on the refractive index $\mu_{lm}=\mu_l/\mu_m$ of the lens which is clear from the formula, you have given. $$P=\frac{1}{f}=(\mu_{lm}-1)\left( \frac{1}{R_1}-\frac{1}{R_2}\right)$$