[Physics] On a measurement level, is quantum mechanics a deterministic theory or a probability theory

determinismmeasurement-problemquantum mechanicsquantum-interpretations

Quantum mechanics is a non-commutative probability theory. As such, it fundamentally behaves differently from classical probability theories. This manifests itself most pronouncedly in the uncertainty principle: a given state can not be assigned a definite position and a definite momentum at the same time.

Enter the measurement: If I understand correctly, when performing a measurement the outcome is a definite result on a classical level. I.e. once we have measured say the position of a particle, the information about where it was is saved in some classical way, where the classicality here emerges through having a large enough system.

To understand this apparent disparity, the concept of wave function collapse was regarded as the solution for a long time, e.g. as part of the Copenhagen interpretation of quantum mechanics. Nowadays it is widely accepted that there is no such thing as collapse, instead the quantum state of the universe evolves in a unitary way (i.e. by the Schrödinger equation). The apparent collapse is then explained as a result of interactions in many-particle systems (see e.g. on SE: this and this, and links therein. In particular this.). This also explains how some many-particle systems may well be approximated as classical and can store the information of measurement outcomes.

The question: Let us suppose we know the complete quantum state of the universe (or a closed system for that matter, to address StéfaneRollandin's concerns that the universe's quantum state may be ill-defined). Can we predict measurement outcomes in the future? Or can we only assign a classical probability? To reformulate: Is quantum mechanics on a measurement level a deterministic theory or a probability theory? If it is the latter how can this possibly be consistent with unitarity as described above? And are the probabilities associated still part of a non-commutative probability theory?

Note that in this question, interpretations of QM will not play a role, since by definition they yield the same theory in terms of observable quantities. I would therefore appreciate if an interpretation free answer could be given.

Best Answer

Is quantum mechanics on a measurement level a deterministic theory or a probability theory?

Probability theory. Evidence: when physicists do quantum measurements they find the results of individual runs are unpredictable. Only frequencies of multiple runs are predictable and match the theoretical results of quantum mechanics.

How can this possibly be consistent with unitarity as described above?

During a quantum measurement (measuring a system S by an apparatus A) the complete system S+A viewed at the microscopic level undergoes unitary evolution. During that evolution the system S become entangled with the apparatus A. However, by experimental design, this entanglement when viewed as a macroscopic approximation is seen to have some simplifying features:

a. The apparatus is in a mixed state of pointer states
b. The possible eigenvectors of some observable of S have coupled to the pointer states
c. Off-diagonal "interference" terms have become suppressed by decoherence due to the many internal degrees of freedom of A.

Owing to the special nature of these pointer states of A (from OP "some many-particle systems may well be approximated as classical and can store the information of measurement outcomes") we now have an objective fact about our universe.

Only one of the pointer states has in fact actually occurred in our universe (we can make this statement whether on not a physicist actually reads the pointer and discovers which universe we are actually in).

We can then make the inference that for this particular run of the S+A interaction, the system S in fact belongs to the subensemble giving rise to the occurance of this pointer state. We can make this reduction of the original ensemble based on this objective information about our universe. Restricted to this subensemble, we still have unitary evolution when viewed at the exact microscopic level.

Disclaimer: I don't know whether this really makes any sense, but this is what the reference referred to by OP seems to be saying.

Follow up question: so can we say QM is a probability theory for practical purposes but deterministic in principle?

No I think not. Here is the confusion: having banished the need for explicit wave function collapse from the QM formalism it seems that all we are left with is deterministic unitary evolution of the wavefunction of our closed system. Hence surely QM is deterministic. But no. The indeterminism in the outcome of measurements is still present in the wavefunction.

In fact the QM formalism tells us precisely when it is able to be deterministic and when not: it is deterministic whenever the quantum state is an eigenvector of the operator related to the measurement in question. Remarkably from this one postulate it is possible to derive that quantum mechanics is probabilistic (i.e. we can derive the Born Rule).

Explicitly, we can show that it is deterministic that if the evolution of S+A is run $N$ times (with $N \rightarrow \infty$) then the frequencies of different results will follow precisely the Born rule probabilities. However for a single run there is no such determinism. For a single run it is only determined that there will be an outcome.

This approach to QM is described by Arkani-Hamed here.

Edit
For a more advanced discussion of these ideas I recommend Is the statistical interpretation of Quantum Mechanics dead?