[Physics] n intuitive explanation for why Lorentz force is perpendicular to a particle’s velocity and the magnetic field

electromagnetismforcesmagnetic fieldsvectorsvelocity

The Lorentz force on a charged particle is perpendicular to the particle's velocity and the magnetic field it's moving through. This is obvious from the equation:

$$ \mathbf{F} = q\mathbf{v} \times \mathbf{B} $$

Is there an intuitive explanation for this behavior? Every explanation I've seen simply points at the equation and leaves it at that.

I can accept mathematically why $\mathbf{F}$ will be perpendicular to $\mathbf{v}$ and $\mathbf{B}$ (assuming the equation is correct, which it is of course). But that doesn't help me picture what's fundamentally going on.

Trying to create an analogy with common experiences seems useless; if I were running north through a west-flowing "field" of some sort, I wouldn't expect to suddenly go flying into the sky.

I'm hoping there's a way to visualize the reason for this behavior without a deep understanding of advanced theory. Unfortunately, my searching for an explanation makes it seem like something one just has to accept as bizarre until several more years of study.

Best Answer

Trying to create an analogy with common experiences seems useless; if I were running north through a west-flowing "field" of some sort, I wouldn't expect to suddenly go flying into the sky.

This is a reasonable expectation, since the electric and gravitational fields do make forces that are in the direction of the field. So let's try to see what goes wrong if we write down a force law for magnetism that behaves in the same way. The first thing we could try would be

$$ \textbf{F}=q\textbf{B} \qquad (1) $$

Well, this doesn't work, because such a force would behave in exactly the same way as the electric force, and it would therefore be the electric force, not a separate phenomenon. Magnetic forces are supposed to be interactions of moving charges with moving charges, so clearly we need to include $\textbf{v}$ on the right-hand-side. One way to do this would be the standard Lorentz force law, but we're looking for some alternative that is in the direction of the field. So we could write down this:

$$ \textbf{F}=q\textbf{B}|\textbf{v}| \qquad (2) $$

As an example of what's wrong with this one, suppose we have identical charges $q$ bound together with a spring. If they're sitting at rest in equilibrium, equation (2) says there's no magnetic force on them. But suppose we start them vibrating just a little bit. Now they're going to start shooting off in the direction of the magnetic field. This violates conservation of energy and momentum.

Fundamentally, this comes down to an algebraic issue. The vector cross product has the distributive property $(\textbf{v}_1+\textbf{v}_2)\times\textbf{B}=\textbf{v}_1\times\textbf{B}+\textbf{v}_2\times\textbf{B}$, and in the example of the charges on a spring, with the actual Lorentz force, this guarantees that the magnetic forces on the two charges cancel out. We really need this distributive property, and in fact it can be proved that the vector cross product is the only possible form of vector multiplication (up to a multiplicative constant) that produces a vector result, is rotationally invariant, is distributive, and commutes with scalar multiplication. (See my book http://www.lightandmatter.com/area1sn.html , appendix 2.)

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