[Physics] Is the impulse 0 in a perfectly inelastic collision

collisionhomework-and-exercisesmomentumnewtonian-mechanics

I have this problem:

An object $A$ of mass $48\: \text{kg}$ hits with a velocity of $7.0 \:\text{ms}^{-1}$ another object $B$ which is not moving. After the collision the two objects move together at the same velocity of $1.4\: \text{ms}^{-1}$. What's the mass of $B$? What's the impulse applied on $B$ during the collision?

So this is my doubt: the mass of $B$ is $192 \:\text{kg}$, since the impulse equals the change of momentum, is the impulse equal to $0$ since the change of momentum doesn't change in an inelastic collision? Is it possible not to have an impulse during a collision?

Best Answer

The momenta of individual objects in a collision do change (no matter whether it's elastic or inelastic). However, the total momentum is conserved (does not change), again, irrespective of the fact that the collision is elastic or inelastic. Thus there is a non zero, and in fact equal and opposite impulse on both the objects. Due to this equal and opposite impulse (caused by the normal force between them), the net impulse on the system of those two objects becomes zero and thus the net momentum of the system is conserved.