[Physics] How to work out the relation between the “mean relative speed” and the “mean speed”

probabilitythermodynamics

I'm a freshman and am taking the general physics course. I just learned intro thermodynamics. One problem that really puzzles me is the calculation of "collision mean-free path", where calculating the mean relative velocity between gas molecules is needed. Our textbook simply gives a result $$\langle |v_r|\rangle =\sqrt2\langle |v|\rangle $$ without further explanation.
Here I am using angle brackets ($\langle \rangle $) to represent the "mean value" of what's inside. And note that all the velocities here are vectors, so I am using the absolute value symbols to get the "speed".

My professor has provided an explanation as follows:
Suppose that we select an arbitrary molecule A, with the velocity $v$ to the "stationary", as the reference frame. And suppose another arbitrarily selected molecule B has the velocity $v'$ to the "stationary". Therefore, in the reference frame A, B's velocity will be $(v'-v)$, which is just $v_r$, denoting B's "relative velocity" to A.
So we have:
$$v_r=v'-v$$
Square both sides,
$$|v_r|^2=|v'|^2+|v|^2-2v'\centerdot v$$
Now that we want to obtain the "mean value" of $v_r$ of an immense group of such "molecule B"s in a statistical sense,so my professor tried to work out the "mean value" of both sides:
$$\langle |v_r|^2\rangle =\langle |v'|^2\rangle +\langle |v|^2\rangle -2\langle v'\centerdot v\rangle $$
It is plain to see (although there may be a lack of rigorousness) that, statistically
$$\langle v'\centerdot v\rangle =0$$
and that
$$\langle |v'|^2\rangle =\langle |v|^2\rangle $$
Therefore
$$\langle |v_r|^2\rangle =2\langle |v|^2\rangle $$
Here comes the key part.From the above equation my professor concluded that
$$\langle |v_r|\rangle =\sqrt2\langle |v|\rangle $$

However, I do not think this plausible step holds water. Because I think that for a statistical variable $x$, $\langle x\rangle ^2$ and $\langle x^2\rangle $ are not necessarily equal. (especially when I later learned something about Maxwell velocity distribution and found that for gas molecules the mean speed $|v|$ is actually smaller than the root mean square speed $\sqrt{\langle |v|^2\rangle }$.)
So I think, instead of getting the result we want, the last step in fact gives
$$\sqrt{\langle |v_r|^2\rangle }=\sqrt{2}\sqrt{\langle |v|^2\rangle }$$

This problem has been bothering me for several weeks and I want it fully explained, in an explicit and rigor way. I think only by using the knowledge of probability can a mathematically-convincing explanation be achieved. Unluckily I haven't learned much about probability and knows very little about relevant theories. Would anybody help me about this? Merci.

Best Answer

You are right, actually $\frac{\langle v^2 \rangle}{\langle v \rangle^2}=8\pi/3$. For what the professor wrote you do not need to assume that $\langle v^2 \rangle=\langle v \rangle^2 $, but only that $\frac{\langle v^2 \rangle}{\langle v \rangle^2}=\frac{\langle v_r^2 \rangle}{\langle v_r \rangle^2}=C $, with $C$ arbitrary.

Even if this assumption might look more plausible, it is still unjustified, so this is still not a rigorous demonstration. The right way to do it is to use the speed distribution and calculate it by brute force. I tried a couple of times but ended up with terrible integrals. I am not sure now how straightforward it is to do it. So do not be discouraged if you try and fail.