I have read various answers, on PSE and elsewhere, and most of them explain that the point of contact of the rolling object undergoes no instantaneous displacement in the direction of friction, I agree, but then there is a feeling that the friction does provide a torque, so how can it do no work> (The pure rolling here is under a constant external force on the object so friction does act ).
Friction in Physics – How Can Friction Do No Work in Pure Rolling?
frictionnewtonian-mechanicsrigid-body-dynamicsrotational-dynamicswork
Related Solutions
Both are correct... in the environment in which they are correct.
If I have an object that is rotating at a steady rate along a perfectly flat surface with no air friction, you are correct that there must be no force of friction. If there were, it would be an unopposed force, and the object would slow down. Because the object is not slipping, if it slows down, it has to rotate slower, which is in violation of the initial assumptions we made.
On the other hand, consider an object which is accelerating in a no-slip manner, like a ball starting to roll down a ramp. In this situation, the acceleration is increasing the required rotational speed to achieve the no-slip constraint. This means we must have a torque on the object, meaning we must have a force which does not go through the center of mass of the object. The only valid one is friction, so you are correct: there will be a friction force opposing the direction of motion because that creates the torque needed to increase the rotational rate.
The difference in the situations is the accelerations and/or other forces besides friction that are in the picture.
As for a third hand, I'd recommend a very enjoyable Smarter Every Day video about how fast things roll. It's not about exactly the same concept, but it's close. And I am always happy when a trained scientist gets confused about the things that confuse me!
When a body is executing pure rolling we know that the point of contact of the body with the ground is at rest with respect to the ground.
This is true.
If that's the case no friction should act as it is stationary
This is false. Static friction is a friction force that can act on an object that is not sliding relative to the surface it is touching.
So when a body is rolling down an inclined plane its point of contact is stationary , then how does friction act to cause a torque, as static friction only acts when there is a tendency of relative motion with respect to the ground?
Gravity is attempting to accelerate the body down the incline. The static friction force opposes this. Since the friction is applied at the edge of the body and tangent to it friction has a torque about the center of the body and it starts to roll.
Contrast this with a body rolling on a flat surface. If there are no other horizontal forces then there is nothing for friction to oppose. Therefore, there is no static friction force, hence no torque. The body will continue to roll at a constant speed. However if I then apply a horizontal force, static friction now wants to oppose this. Hence we now have a torque and a change in speed (this problem, discussed here and here, is actually not trivial. You can get different magnitudes and directions of friction depending on the body and the the location and strength of the applied force if you want rolling without slipping).
Best Answer
In a scenario of pure rolling of a rigid wheel on a flat plane, you don't need any friction. Once the wheel is rolling, it will continue to do so, even if the friction coefficient becomes zero. If this were not the case, you'd be violating conservation of angular momentum. There is no force, no torque and therefore no work done.
The more interesting case is that where the object is rolling under an external force, say down an inclined plane. See the diagram below
Now, you can analyze it in two ways. One is similar to Farcher's answer where the point of contact moves perpendicular to the frictional force and hence, there is no work done. But you were interested in it from the point of view of torques (where we consider the whole wheel, not just the point of contact) so let's do that.
Friction does two things to the wheel as a whole. It does negative work when you look at the linear motion of the wheel. Indeed,
$$W_1 = -f.dS,$$
where $f$ is the force of friction and the wheel has moved a linear distance $dS$. Next, the friction provides a torque about the center of the wheel and the wheel has angular displacement. Hence, it does positive rotational work i.e.
$$W_2 = \tau. d\alpha,$$
where $\tau$ is the torque and $d\alpha$ is the angular displacement of the wheel. But note that $\tau = fR$ and $R d\alpha = dS$. Hence $W_2 = f.dS$ and you get
$$W_{tot} = W_1 + W_2 = 0$$