[Physics] Hermitian operator in an orthonormal eigenbasis

eigenvaluehilbert-spaceoperatorsquantum mechanicsvectors

In page 36 of Shankar's Principles of Quantum Mechanics is given a theorem:

Theorem 10. To every Hermitian Operator $\Omega$, there exists (at least) a basis consisting of its orthonormal eigenvectors. It is diagonal in this eigenbasis and has its eigenvalues as its diagonal entries.

There is a part of the proof that I do not understand. Turning to page 36, one reads that, corresponding to the eigenvalue $\omega_{1}$ is a normalized eigenvector $|\omega_{1}\rangle$. Considering $|\omega_{1}\rangle$ to be a basis, $\Omega$ has a matrix form $$\begin{bmatrix}
\omega_{1} & 0 &. &. &. & 0\\
0& \omega_{2}& . & . & . &. \\
. & . & \omega_{3}&. & . &. \\
. &. &. &. &. &. \\
. & .& .& .& . &. \\
0& . &. & .& .&\omega_{n}
\end{bmatrix}$$
Where the dots indicate a series of zeroes. This leads me to question. Why does $\Omega$ take that form? Also, why is the first column the image of $|\omega_{1}\rangle$ after $\Omega$ has acted on it?

Best Answer

$\vert\omega_1\rangle$ would not be a basis, but the set $\{\vert\omega_1\rangle,\vert\omega_2\rangle, \ldots,\vert\omega_n\rangle\}$ is a basis. The eigenvector $\vert\omega_i\rangle$ is such that $\Omega\vert\omega_i\rangle=\omega_i\vert\omega_i\rangle$ so...

With the identification $$ \vert\omega_1\rangle \to \left(\begin{array}{c} 1 \\ 0 \\ \vdots \\ 0\end{array}\right)\, ,\quad \vert\omega_2\rangle \to \left(\begin{array}{c} 0 \\ 1 \\ \vdots \\ 0\end{array}\right)\, ,\ldots \, , \vert\omega_n\rangle \to \left(\begin{array}{c} 0 \\ \vdots \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{array}\right) $$ and the matrix representation of $\Omega$ as you suggest you find by simple matrix multiplication that $$ \Omega \vert \omega_n\rangle = \omega_n\vert\omega_n\rangle $$ as per the properties of eigenstates of $\Omega$. Note that under this identification the vectors $\vert\omega_i\rangle$ are an orthonormal basis since $\langle \omega_i\vert\omega_j\rangle=\delta_{ij}$.

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