[Physics] Eigenstates of momentum and energy of a free particle

momentumobservablesoperatorsquantum mechanics

Given the momentum operator $\hat{P}:= \frac{\hbar}{i}\frac{d}{dx}$, as I understand, the eigenvalue equations are $$\hat{P}f_{p}(x)= \frac{\hbar}{i}\frac{d}{dx}f_{p}(x) = p f_{p}(x)$$ and the eigenfunctions which correspond to this are $$f_{p}(x) = A e^{\frac{ipx}{\hbar}}.$$ Given then that the square of this operator $\hat{P}^2$ commutes with $\hat{P}$, so $[\hat{P}, \hat{P}^2] = 0$, it follows that the two operators share a common set of eigenstates which form a basis (apparently in something called a rigged Hilbert space) such that any quantum state, represented as a member of some Hilbert space can be written as a linear combination of elements of these basis vectors (this is a postulate of QM).

Question: I know that all eigenvectors of $\hat{P}$ are eigenvectors of $\hat{P}^2$ (which are of the form $f_{p}(x) = A e^{\frac{ipx}{\hbar}}$) this is easy to show. But what are the eigenvectors of $\hat{P}^2$ which are not eigenvectors of $\hat{P}$ and can you form a basis of such vectors? Thanks.

Best Answer

You ask for

the eigenvectors of $\hat{p}^2$ which are not eigenvectors of $\hat{p}$.

These do exist: each plane wave $|p⟩$ is an eigenvector of $\hat p$ with eigenvalue $p$, and an eigenvector of $\hat{p}^2$ with eigenvalue $p^2$, which means that the plane wave $\left|-p\right>$ has the same eigenvalue of $\hat{p}^2$. This means, in turn, that any linear combination of the two will still be an eigenvector of $\hat{p}^2$.

As a quick example of how you turn these into a basis, you can simply consider the basis $$ \left\{\frac{\left|p\right>+\left|-p\right>}{\sqrt{2}}\middle|\, p\geq0\right\} \bigcup \left\{\frac{\left|p\right>-\left|-p\right>}{\sqrt{2}}\middle|\, p<0\right\} , $$ which consists of the real-valued plane waves with position-representation wavefunctions $$ \left<x\right|\frac{\left|p\right>+\left|-p\right>}{\sqrt{2}} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi}}\cos(px) \quad\text{and}\quad \left<x\right|\frac{\left|p\right>-\left|-p\right>}{\sqrt{2}} = \frac{i}{\sqrt{\pi}}\sin(px) , $$ respectively. It should be a relatively easy exercise for you to transform the completeness relation over the $|p⟩$ states to show that these are a basis. (While doing that, by the way, never mind the zero: all your integrals are Lebesgue integrals, and pointwise values do not matter.)

In three dimensions, of course, it becomes a bit more complicated (you need to change the condition $p>0$ for a set that includes half of all $p$ space, for this example) but you also have more freedom, as there is a much bigger set of $\mathbf p$s that share the same $p^2$.