[Physics] Dot product of two vectors in spherical polar coordinates, do I have to convert to cartesian coordinates

coordinate systemsvectors

For two vectors $p_1=(r_1,\theta_1, \phi_1)$ and $p_2=(r_2, \theta_2, \phi_2)$ I want the dot product $p_1\cdot p_2$. However, the solutions I have seen, involve finding the components in Cartesian coordinates and using them to get the dot product
e.g.,
$$p_1\cdot p_2= r_1r_2\sin{\theta_1}\cos{\phi_1}\sin{\theta_2}\cos{\phi_2}
+r_1r_2\sin{\theta_1}\sin{\phi_1}\sin{\theta_2}\sin{\phi_2}
+r_1r_2\cos{\theta_1}\cos{\theta_2}$$

My question is, is it necessary to convert to Cartesian?
I thought that in spherical polar the dot product would be:
$p_1\cdot p_2=(r_1r_2+\theta_1\theta_2+\phi_1\phi_2).$
It gives the wrong answer, so I know I am going wrong but not sure where. So, where I go wrong?

Best Answer

The formula $$ \sum_{i=1}^3 p_i q_i $$ for the dot product obviously holds for the Cartesian form of the vectors only. The proposed sum of the three products of components isn't even dimensionally correct – the radial coordinates are dimensionful while the angles are dimensionless, so they just can't be added.

One can't simplify the calculation much. At most, one may realize that the inner product will only depend on $\phi_1,\phi_2$ through their difference $\phi_1-\phi_2$ because one may use the rotational symmetry around the $z$-axis to set e.g. $\phi_2$=0.

While doing so, we may set $\phi_2=0$ i.e. $y_2=0$ and the inner product reduces to $$ x_1 x_2 + z_1 z_2 = r_1r_2 (\sin\theta_1\sin\theta_2 \cos\phi_1 + \cos\theta_1\cos\theta_2) $$ We may restore the form for a general rotation by replacing $\phi_1$ in the formula above by $\phi_1-\phi_2$ to get the inner product $$ r_1r_2 (\sin\theta_1\sin\theta_2 \cos(\phi_1-\phi_2) + \cos\theta_1\cos\theta_2) $$ which is the same as your formula because $\cos(a-b)=\cos a\cos b +\sin a \sin b$.

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