We know that light and electrons both show wave-particle duality. Or in other words we can say that they can be both seen as a wave and a particle. Can a similar theory be applicable for sound? Can sound also be explained as a particle as well as a wave?
[Physics] Does sound show wave-particle duality
acousticsphononswave-particle-duality
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Rox, I highly recommend that you get a copy of Richard Feynman's QED: The Strange Theory of Light and Matter. You are asking some interesting questions, but you will need to state them more precisely before you can get an answer that will be fully satisfying to you. QED is both one of the most interesting physics reads I know of on the oddness of things quantum, and simultaneously one of the most precise. Feynman wrote it for a non-mathematical friend, and avoided using any equations (well, except in some footnotes, just to brag about the truly amazing fit of complex numbers to the problem of quantum mechanics). Unlike many pieces on this subject, Feynman will not lead you astray with false or glitzy analogies. He realized that reality itself is quite, quite weird enough without any window dressing.
Duality is the relationship between two entities that are claimed to be fundamentally equally important or legitimate as features of the underlying object.
The precise definition of a "duality" depends on the context. For example, in string theory, a duality relates two seemingly inequivalent descriptions of a physical system whose physical consequences, when studied absolutely exactly, are absolutely identical.
The wave-particle duality (or dualism) isn't far from this "extreme" form of duality. It indeed says that the objects such as photons (and electromagnetic waves composed of them) and electrons exhibit both wave and particle properties and they are equally natural, possible, and important.
In fact, we may say that there are two equivalent descriptions of particles – in the position basis and the momentum basis. The former corresponds to the particle paradigm, the latter corresponds to the wave paradigm because waves with well-defined wavelengths are represented by simple objects.
It's certainly not true that Young was wrong and Newton was right. Up to the 20th century, it seemed obvious that Young was more right than Newton because light indisputably exhibits wave properties, as seen in Young's experiments and interference and diffraction phenomena in general. The same wave phenomena apply to electrons that are also behaving as waves in many contexts.
In fact, the state-of-the-art "theory of almost everything" is called quantum field theory and it's based on fields as fundamental objects while particles are just their quantized excitations. A field may have waves on it and quantum mechanics just says that for a fixed frequency $f$, the energy carried in the wave must be a multiple of $E=hf$. The integer counting the multiple is interpreted as the number of particles but the objects are more fundamentally waves.
One may also adopt a perspective or description in which particles look more elementary and the wave phenomena are just a secondary property of them.
None of these two approaches is wrong; none of them is "qualitatively more accurate" than the other. They're really equally valid and equally legitimate – and mathematically equivalent, when described correctly – which is why the word "duality" or "complementarity" is so appropriate.
Best Answer
The notion you should look up and learn about is the phonon. It is a quasiparticle that arises in the quantum description of acoustics in condensed matter. The description is simplest and clearest in regular lattices of atoms / quantum particles, so it doesn't work so well for sound in a gas. But phonons can be thought of as quantums of sound in solid lattices.
Basically, a lattice is modelled as a system of coupled quantum harmonic oscillators, whose Schrödinger equation is very like a classical model of point masses linked by ideal massless springs. The system has eigenmodes with natural frequencies $\omega_j$, and the energy level of $j^{th}$ eigenmode can change only by integer multiples of $\hbar\,\omega_j$, whilst its ground state has energy $\frac{1}{2}\,\hbar\,\omega_j$. The quantum of this energy change $\hbar\,\omega_j$ corresponds to the phonons of the acoustic eigenmode in question.