[Physics] Does angular momentum of hydrogen atom imply motion of electron around the nucleus

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Does the non-zero orbital angular momentum (or z-component of angular momentum) of a stationary state of hydrogen atom imply motion of electron (or at least the probability density $|\Psi|^2$) around the nucleus?

I really don't know how to start this but:

the expectation value for velocity of a particle can be derived from
$$\frac{d\langle x \rangle}{dt} = \int x \frac{\partial}{\partial t}|\Psi|^2dx \tag{1}$$
and applying some integration by parts and some substitution of the time-dependent schrodinger equation (as shown in Griffiths book of QM), we will have

\begin{equation}\frac{d\langle x \rangle}{dt} = -\frac{i\hbar}{m}\int \Psi^*\frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x}dx \tag{2}\end{equation}

and the expectation value for momentum is just
\begin{equation}\langle p_x\rangle = m\frac{d\langle x\rangle}{dt} = -i\hbar\int \Psi^*\frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x}dx \tag{3}\end{equation}
so that in applying the momentum operator $p_x = -i\hbar\partial/\partial x$, we are just getting values for the expectation value of momentum.

However, the operator for the z-component of angular momentum reads
\begin{equation}L_z = -i\hbar(x\partial/\partial y – y\partial/\partial x) = xp_y – yp_x \tag{4}\end{equation}
But for a stationary state of a hydrogen atom, $|\Psi|^2$ is not time-dependent, because
\begin{equation}|\Psi|^2 = \Psi^*\Psi = \psi^* e^{iE_nt/\hbar}\psi e^{-iE_nt/\hbar} = \psi^* \psi \tag{5}\end{equation}
and the tacked time dependence factor cancels out (This does not occur if the wave-function is a superposition of states, because the tacked time-dependence factor does not necessarily cancel out because of difference in energies). Which also means the "electron cloud (Probability density)" is not moving/changing, in contradiction to what others say that the motion of the electron cloud and not the electron itself is the reason for the presence of angular momentum – because not even the electron cloud is changing.

And it is also contradictory for me that the z-component of angular momentum should be present, since it involves momentum operators and if you look at equation 1 from which the momentum operator is derived, $\frac{\partial}{\partial t}|\Psi|^2 = 0$ if $|\Psi|^2$ is not time dependent, which means $\frac{d\langle x \rangle}{dt} = 0$, $\langle p_x\rangle = m\frac{d\langle x\rangle}{dt} = 0$, and if I am correct, applying $p_x = -i\hbar\partial/\partial x$ should yield $0$?

Best Answer

This is one of the mysteries of quantum mechanics. If you could measure the velocity of an electron, you would get a non-zero value. But what you can't do is use that velocity to predict where to find it next. The act of measurement disturbs the electron in an essential way.

One popular interpretation of quantum mechanics is a statistical one. This says that the wave function provides the probability density for finding the result of a measurement on an ensemble of identically prepared systems. That is, I start with an atom and measure the velocity of its electron. I get a value. I then prepare an identical atom and measure the velocity of its electron. I get a different value. This is very different from classical mechanics. It also might make a connection for you to @EmilioPisanty comment.

There is no way in which our traditional notion of "orbit" makes sense. There's no way our traditional notion of angular momentum applies. We notice that atoms behave as if they have angular momentum, and then go about building a mathematical structure that describes it. We find that the idea of electrons moving from here to there just has no place. Our description of nature does not include the idea that electrons in atoms move from here to there the way macroscopic objects do.

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