Feynman Rules – Understanding Derivative Interaction in Quantum Field Theory

gauge-theorylorentz-symmetrypath-integralquantizationquantum-field-theory

As we known, if there is time derivative interaction in $\mathcal L_\mathrm{int}$, then $\mathcal{H}_\mathrm{int}\neq -\mathcal{L}_\mathrm{int}$. For example, Scalar QED,
$$
\begin{aligned}
\mathcal{L}_\mathrm{int}&= -ie \phi^\dagger(\partial_\mu \phi) A^\mu+ie(\partial_\mu \phi^\dagger) \phi A^\mu +e^2\phi^\dagger \phi A_\mu A^\mu, \\
\mathcal{H}_\mathrm{int}&=-\mathcal{L}_\mathrm{int} -e^2 \phi^\dagger\phi (A^0)^2.
\end{aligned}
$$

There is the last term breaking Lorentz invariance.

Derivation:
\begin{eqnarray}
\mathcal{L}&=&(\partial_\mu+i e A_\mu)\phi (\partial^\mu-i e A^\mu)\phi^\dagger-m^2\phi^\dagger \phi\\
&=&\mathcal{L}_0^\mathrm{KG}+\mathcal{L}_\mathrm{int},
\end{eqnarray}

where
$$\mathcal{L}_0^\mathrm{KG}=\partial_\mu\phi \partial^\mu\phi^\dagger-m^2\phi^\dagger \phi,$$
$$\mathcal{L}_\mathrm{int}= -ie \phi^\dagger(\partial_\mu \phi) A^\mu+ie(\partial_\mu \phi^\dagger) \phi A^\mu +e^2\phi^\dagger \phi A_\mu A^\mu, $$

$$\pi=\frac{\partial \mathcal{ L}}{\partial(\partial_0 \phi)}=\partial^0\phi^\dagger-i e A^0 \phi^\dagger,$$

$$\pi^\dagger=\frac{\partial \mathcal{ L}}{\partial(\partial_0 \phi^\dagger)}=\partial^0\phi+i e A^0 \phi, $$

\begin{eqnarray}
\mathcal{H}&=&\pi \dot\phi+\pi^\dagger \dot\phi^\dagger-\mathcal{L} \\
&=&\pi \dot\phi+\pi^\dagger \dot\phi^\dagger-(\dot\phi^\dagger\dot\phi-\nabla\phi^\dagger \cdot\nabla\phi-m^2 \phi^\dagger\phi)-\mathcal{L}_\mathrm{int} \\
&=&\pi(\pi^\dagger-ieA^0\phi)+\pi^\dagger (\pi +ieA^0\phi^\dagger)-((\pi^\dagger-ieA^0\phi)(\pi +ieA^0\phi^\dagger) \\ &&-\nabla\phi^\dagger \cdot\nabla\phi-m^2 \phi^\dagger\phi)-\mathcal{L}_\mathrm{int}\\
&=&(\pi^\dagger \pi + \nabla\phi^\dagger \cdot\nabla\phi+m^2 \phi^\dagger\phi)-\mathcal{L}_\mathrm{int} -e^2 \phi^\dagger\phi (A^0)^2 \\
&=&\mathcal{H}_0^\mathrm{KG}+\mathcal{H}_\mathrm{int}.
\end{eqnarray}

My questions:

  1. The Feynman Rules for Scalar QED is here. But we see there is an extra term in interaction Hamitonian $ -e^2 \phi^\dagger\phi (A^0)^2$, according to Wick's theorem, it should have some contribution to Feynman Rule which does not occur in this textbook. I've computed this vertex and I find it's nonzero. Why there is no Feynman rules for such Lorentz breaking term?

  2. As we known, for path integral quantization, the coordinate space path integral:
    $$Z_1= \int D q\ \exp\left(\int dt\ L(q,\dot q) \right).$$
    And phase space path integral:
    $$Z_2= \int D p\, D q\ \exp\left(\int dt\ p\dot q -H(p,q) \right).$$
    Only for this type Lagrangian $L=\dot q^2-V(p)$, then $Z_1=Z_2$. (The Feynman Rules for Scalar QED in textbook is same as what is derived by coordinate space path integral. )
    I consider the 2nd method of path integral quantization is always equivalent to canonical quantization. So for Scalar QED, are these two kinds of path integral quantization same? How to prove?

  3. For non-abelian gauge theory, there is derivative interaction even in gauge field itself. It seems that all textbooks use $Z_1$ to get the Feynman rules. Are these two kinds of path integral quantization same in non-abelian gauge field? If not same, why we choose the coordinate space path integral? It's the axiom because it coincides with experiment?

Best Answer

Some general remarks:

  1. In the operator formalism, the non-covariant extra term in the Hamiltonian is cancelled by a non-covariant term coming from the naïve time ordering symbol: $$ \mathrm T\sim\mathrm T_\mathrm{cov}-e^2\phi^2A^2_0 $$

    You can find the details in ref.1, section 6-1-4.

    On the other hand, the case of the path-integral formalism is covered by item 2 below.

  2. The formal equivalence $Z_1=Z_2$ can be proven for any Hamiltonian of the form $$ H\sim A^{ij}\pi_i\pi_j+B^i(\phi)\pi_i+C(\phi) $$ of which your Hamiltonian is an example of. For the proof and relevant discussion, see ref.2, Vol.1., section 9.3.

  3. For the discussion of the path-integral quantisation of non-abelian gauge theories, see ref.2, Vol.2, chapters 15.4 -- 15.8. Ref.1, chapter 12-2 is also worth a read. In short, "$Z_1=Z_2$" up to the subtleties introduced by gauge-invariance.

References

[1] Itzykson & Zuber, Quantum field theory.

[2] Weinberg, Quantum theory of fields.

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