[Physics] Can a photon have a wavelength less than the planck length
electromagnetismphotonsquantum mechanics
Well? Maths if necessary, please.
Would the photon effectively have no wavelength?
Best Answer
If there was a minimum wavelength, you just could increase your own velocity in direction of the photon to still make it smaller.
Since the relative velocity to the photon must always be c the only thing that can increase then is the frequency, so you always can get a still smaller wavelength just by increasing the doppler effect.
Because of that there is no minimum wavelength. If you could reach c (which you can't) the wavelength would be zero, but since you can get arbitrarily close to c the wavelength can also get arbitrarily close to zero.
For the photon we have $$E_\gamma = \frac{hc}{\lambda}$$
and for the electron $$E_e = \frac{h^2}{2m\lambda^2} =\frac{hc}{\lambda} \frac{h}{2mc\lambda} = E_\gamma \frac{h}{2mc\lambda}. $$
You can check that the proportionality factor is dimensionless. So what you are asking is why this quantity is less than unity. But recall that $$\frac{h}{\lambda} =p$$
where $p$ is the momentum. What we are looking at is really (one half) the ratio $$\frac{pc}{mc^2} = \frac{mvc}{mc^2}$$
where I assumed that $v \ll c$, that is, we have a non-relativistic electron. Then we get the result you stated in your question. On the other, hand if we don't make this approximation we have the ratio $$\frac{pc}{mc^2} =\frac{mv\gamma c}{mc^2} = \frac{v\gamma}{c}$$
which is unbounded when $v \to c$.
You could also argue from Einstein's $$E^2 = m^2 + p^2$$
(in units where $c = 1$). For $m = 0$ we have of course $E = p$. If you make a Taylor expansion of $E$ for $m\neq 0$, $$E = m + \frac{p^2}{2m} + \ldots$$
you see that the kinetic energy, compared to the energy of a massless particle has a factor $p/m$ (as we found above). The non-relativistic regime is precisely when this quantity is small, and if it is not, we have to include terms proportional to $p^4/m^3$ and higher, and again that the energy can be larger for a massive particle than for a massless particle with the same momentum. So the answer to your question really is: because you are considering non-relativistic particles.
Best Answer
If there was a minimum wavelength, you just could increase your own velocity in direction of the photon to still make it smaller.
Since the relative velocity to the photon must always be c the only thing that can increase then is the frequency, so you always can get a still smaller wavelength just by increasing the doppler effect.
Because of that there is no minimum wavelength. If you could reach c (which you can't) the wavelength would be zero, but since you can get arbitrarily close to c the wavelength can also get arbitrarily close to zero.