[Physics] Are matter waves transverse and can they be polarized

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Are matter waves transverse and can they be polarized?

What I know:I'm aware of the de Broglie matter waves hypothesis and de Broglie wavelength relation(at a very basic level as part of high school curriculum). But, it is not mentioned anywhere about whether they are transverse or longitudinal. If they were transverse they could be polarized but are they?

I could understand that matter waves are not real waves and therefore there is no case of longitudinal or transverse. I know that the square of amplitude of the wave at a position gives the probability of finding the particle at that position but, why is then frequency defined for matter waves(in other words what is its use?)?

Best Answer

Different possible polarizations of a "matter particle wave" corresponds to the different possible degrees of freedom of the quantum field describing the "particle".

For a photon, we have 2 possible polarizations (for instance : vertical polarization, horizontal polarization). For a electron, we have also 2 possible polarizations (for instance : left handed, right handed). For the positron, we have also the same 2 possible polarizations , and the whole electron/positron quantum Dirac field describes 4 possible polarizations.

However, transversality has to do with a precise space-time condition, and this notion is only available for some Lorentz representations. A transverse relation will be written : $\vec k.\vec \epsilon_\lambda (k) = 0$. However, it suppose that the Lorentz representation of the field is a "vector", which is (roughly) true for the photon field, but false for the electron/positron Dirac field. In the latter case, the representation is a bi-spinor, so you cannot get a transversality relation directly between the momentum $\vec k$ and a bi-spinor like $u(\lambda, \vec k), v(\lambda, \vec k)$ (you will have to involve bilinear (quadratic) quantities based on bi-spinors to get "vectors").

In the same way, the notion of longitudinal wave $\vec k$ parrallel to $\vec \epsilon_\lambda (k)$, is a nonsense in the case of the Dirac field.