[Physics] Air resistance: how does it impact the final velocity

dragenergy-conservationnewtonian-mechanicsprojectile

In an ideal situation where air resistance is not considered, if you project an object upwards vertically with a certain velocity, it falls back down with the same velocity, but in the opposite direction.

$V2 = u2 + 2as$ proves this as the displacement becomes zero. $V=u$ or $V=-u$, the latter is the suitable answer because the velocity is in the opposite direction

Now in the same scenario, if we consider air resistance, my teacher tells me that the final velocity does not equal that of the first. (Magnitude wise) But doesn't the equation of motion stated above contradict this?

The presence of air resistance will only impact acceleration, but as it comes to the starting point, when it falls down, hence resulting in a zero displacement. Thus v= -u according to the above equation.

Have I missed something? Please excuse me if there is some misconception

Best Answer

But doesn't the equation of motion stated above contradict this?

Yes, but that equation is not suitable for a case with air resistance. Air resistance will make the acceleration depend on the velocity rather than be constant.

Since the velocity of the ball is different on the way up and the way down, the acceleration curves are different on the way up and the way down. In particular on the way up, the downward acceleration will be greater than $g$, while on the way down the downward acceleration will be less than $g$. This produces an asymmetry that is not shown in your equation.