Quantum Mechanics – Understanding Ordinarily Continuous Function of the Wave Function

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I just started studying quantum mechanics using the textbook Introduction to Quantum Mechanics by Griffith. Under the section of solving the Shrodinger equation for a Dirac delta potential, he mentioned that the first derivative must be ordinarily continuous except when potential is infinite. I have 2 queries regarding this.

  1. Firstly, what is the mathematical meaning of ordinarily continuous? Does it mean continuous?

  2. Secondly, he mentioned that the first derivative of the wavefunction is ordinarily continuous since 'the limit on the right is zero'. But evidently, the integral is non-zero when it involves the Dirac delta function, although the potential is not infinite at $x=0$. Where's the issue here?

Best Answer

In regard to your second question, I believe Griffiths is stating that, in general, the second integral is zero, and $d\psi/dx$ is continuous. However, when $V(x) \propto \delta(x)$, this statement no longer stands (i.e., $\psi$ is not continuous), and we clearly see that in equation (2.128).

If $\psi'$ were continuous, the value of $\Delta\psi′\equiv\lim_{\epsilon\rightarrow0}[\psi′(\epsilon)−\psi′(−\epsilon)]$ would be equal to zero: the value of $\psi′$ coming from negative values of $x$ should be equal to $\psi′$ coming from positive values of $x$ when approaching $x=0$ (the limit of $\epsilon\rightarrow0$ represents this). If they are equal in $x=0$, then the difference is 0, and we get $\psi′$ is, in fact, continuous.

For the delta-function potential, $\Delta\psi′\neq0$ due to the most important property of the delta function: $$\int_{a+\epsilon}^{a−\epsilon}𝑓(𝑥)\delta(x−a)𝑑x=𝑓(a).$$ Considering this property, one solves the RHS integral of equation (2.127) and gets the RHS of equation (2.128). Griffiths explains using this property by stating, "Equation (2.116) yields (...)".