Is there a connection between the $g$-factor of $2$ and the value $1/2$ of electron spin

dipole-momentquantum-spin

When the $g$-factor of an electron ($g_e$) is approx. $2.00$, this suggests that there is a relationship with the electron being a spin $1/2$ particle.

I write electron spin magnetic dipole moment as $\mu_s = g_e \,\mu_{\text{Bohr}} \, (S /\hbar)$
and electron angular magnetic dipole moment as $\mu_l = g_l \,\mu_{\text{Bohr}} \, (L /\hbar)$.

The electron in hydrogen ground state has $L=\hbar$ and $g_l=1$
and the electron spin has $S=0.5 \hbar$ and $g_S=2$.

So $\mu_s = \mu_l = \mu_{\text{Bohr}}$.
Is there any idea why it is natural or to be expected that an electron in the hydrogen ground state has $\mu_s = \mu_l$ because
surely there is no such thing as coincidence.
I know the Dirac equation calculates this, but it doesn't explain why this is natural or to be expected. There must also be a hidden reason, any ideas?

Let's exclude the strong interaction.

Best Answer

There is no relation. For example, the proton and neutron also have spin $1/2$, yet their g-factor is $5.6$ and $-3.8$, respectively (cf. wikipedia). On the other hand, the W-boson has spin $1$ yet its g-factor is also $2$, as the electron's.

See also arXiv:hep-ph/0607187.

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