Does a larger ball of the same mass roll faster downhill than a smaller ball

moment of inertianewtonian-mechanicsrotational-dynamics

My intuition tells me that a larger ball will cover more ground on each revolution and thus it will go faster downhill than a smaller ball of the same mass.

Assuming both balls are the same mass and the mass is uniformly distributed, what is the answer?

Best Answer

Interestingly, the only thing that matters is the shape (or distribution of mass) of the ball. Consider the total energy for an object rolling down an incline:

$$E = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{2} I\omega^2 + mgy$$

Now note that the rotational inertia of any rolling object can be written in the form $I = \beta mr^2$, where $\beta$ is some unites constant. For a solid sphere, $\beta = 2/5$, for a hollow sphere, $\beta = 2/3$, for a hollow cylinder, $\beta = 1$, while for a solid cylinder, $\beta = 1/2$. You can look these up in any physics textbook, or calculate them by performing an integral.

Also note that the "rolling condition" means that the angular speed is fixed by the speed of the center of mass and the radius: $\omega = v/r$.

Making these two substitutions, we can write:

$$E = \frac{1}{2}(1+\beta)mv^2 + mgy$$

Now imagine that we start from rest at the top at some initial height $y=h$, and roll down to $y=0$ at some final time. Imposing conservation of energy:

$$mgh = \frac{1}{2}(1+\beta)mv_f^2$$ $$v_f = \sqrt{\frac{2gh}{1+\beta}}$$

In other words, the final velocity is independent of the mass and the radius! It only depends on the factor $\beta$ which is determined by the shape of the rolling object (and the initial height, of course)!

EDIT:

I thought I'd add this edit about the acceleration. One can determine the acceleration also by conservation of energy. Start with:

$$E = \frac{1}{2}(1+\beta)mv^2 + mgy$$

and take $\frac{dE}{dt}$. Be sure to impose the chain rule since $y=y(t)$, and $v=v(t)$. Then, conservation of energy implies

$$ \frac{dE}{dt}=(1+\beta)mv \frac{dv}{dt} + mg \frac{dy}{dt} = 0$$. Now $y$ is the height, which we can express in terms of the distance $\ell$ along the incline (from the bottom) as $y = \ell \sin \theta$. But, $\frac{dv}{dt}=a$ and $\frac{dy}{dt}=\frac{d\ell \sin \theta}{dt}=v\sin{\theta}$, assuming $\theta$ is the constant angle of the incline and $v=\frac{d\ell}{dt}$.

$$ \frac{dE}{dt}=(1+\beta)mv a + mg v \sin\theta = 0$$. So the acceleration is: $$a=\frac{-g\sin\theta}{1+\beta}$$ Note that it reduces to the acceleration $a=-g\sin\theta$ of a sliding mass when $\beta \rightarrow 0$, and to "free fall" when $\beta \rightarrow 0$ and $\theta \rightarrow \pi/2$.