Quantum Field Theory – Difference Between Renormalizable and Super-Renormalizable Theories

dimensional analysisfeynman-diagramslagrangian-formalismquantum-field-theoryrenormalization

In $\phi^n$ theory in Peskin & Schroeder the superficial degree of divergence is:
$$D = d – V[\lambda] – \big(\frac{d-2}{2}\big)N \tag{10.13}$$
where $d$ is the dimension, $V$ is the number of vertices and $N$ the number of external lines. Take $N$ to be fixed. We have three possibilities:

  1. If $[\lambda] < 0$ then for all but finitely many $V$, $D > 0$ so an infinite number of diagrams diverge. Such theories are said to be non-renormalizable.
  2. If $[\lambda] > 0$ then for all but finitely many $V$, $D < 0$ so only a finite number of diagrams diverge. Such theories are said to be super-renormalizable.
  3. If $[\lambda] = 0$ then $D$ is always constant at all orders in pertubation theory. Such theories are said to be renormalizable.

Peskin & Schroeder say in a super-renormalizable theory

Only a finite number of Feynman diagrams superficially diverge

and in a renormalizable theory

Only a finite number of amplitudes superficially diverge; however, divergences occur at all orders in perturbation theory

My questions are the following:

  1. Why do we only consider $[\lambda]$ when categorizing a theory as non-renormalizable, super-renormalizable, or renormalizable? For example how do we know the contribution of $[\lambda]$ won't be counteracted by increasing $N$ so that the superficial degree of divergence remains nonpositive? In other words, why do we neglect the effect of $N$ or take it to be constant?
  2. I don't understand Peskin & Schroeder's explanation for the difference between renormalizable and super-renormalizable theories. How does a constant superficial degree of divergence (i.e. when $[\lambda] = 0$) imply only a finite number of amplitudes superficially diverge but that divergences still occur at all orders in perturbation theory?
  3. How does the superficial degree of divergence say anything about the amplitude? I thought it only describes the rate of divergence of the diagram.

Best Answer

  • It should stressed be that Peskin & Schroeder are here using the old Dyson definitions of renormalizability. For a more general derivation of eq. (10.13), see e.g. this Phys.SE post, which also answers several of OP's questions.

  • OP's main question seems to be the following. Assume that the spacetime dimension $d>2$ and that the theory only has one (scalar) field $\phi$ with a single coupling constant $\lambda$.

    An $N$-point (connected) amplitude/correlation function is a sum of infinitely many (connected) Feynman diagrams with a fixed number $N$ of external legs.

    If $[\lambda]\geq 0$ [corresponding to the (super)renormalizable case], then only for finitely many natural numbers $N \leq \frac{d}{[\phi]}$, where $[\phi]=\frac{d-2}{2}$, the $N$-point amplitude can contain Feynman diagrams$^1$ with $D\geq 0$.

    (The above argument can be generalized to a theory with finitely many types of fields and coupling constants.)

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$^1$ NB: Be aware that due to possible (UV) divergent subdiagrams, the actual (UV) divergencies may be worse than indicated by $D$.