Mathematics – Can Physics Theorems Prove Maths Theorems Like Pythagoras’ Theorem?

geometrymathematicsmomentmoment of inertia

There's this recent post on maths overflow Which theorems have Pythagoras' Theorem as a special case? that has an answer by dxiv that appears to use a physics theorem to a prove a maths theorem, namely using the parallel axis (axes?) theorem to prove Pythagoras' Theorem aka the Pythagorean Theorem.

Question: Possibly n00b question, but what are others like this, if I am interpreting this right? Can I use, what, perpendicular axis theorem to prove Pythagoras' Theorem? Or some other Physics thing to prove (some version of the) Cauchy–Bunyakovsky–Schwarz inequality? Or maybe am I misinterpreting this as a case of physics theorem proving a maths theorem in that, what, we're actually viewing a triangle as like a physics object (or isomorphic to or embedded in some physics object) instead of a maths object? Idk.

I mean, I find this incredible. Of course there are things in maths like using complex analysis to evaluate real integrals or using probability to solve PDEs but there isn't really like a 'precedence' issue here.

The closest I know of cases like the above is using a complex analysis theorem to prove a topology theorem (eg this) despite that topology kinda 'precedes' complex analysis or something. But no way is this precedence on the same level as like how maths precedes physics. Viewing maths as like the 'language of science' or whatever. I find this like, I don't know, psychology (taught or studied in English) proving a theorem in the English language or something.

Best Answer

It's like dxiv said. The special case they used here is equivalent to the median length theorem, which is a theorem in math. Besides, I find the idea of using physics to "prove" something in math a bit weird. Physics is an empirical science in the sense that we make measurements and formulate mathematical models that agree with the measurements. Sure, one can use the existing mathematical models to make predictions about measurements that they are yet to take, but that's as far as you can go with the framework of physics. In other words, formal physics can be used to predict or "prove" something concerning physics, but it cannot prove anything in math. I like to think of math as being the explanation for physics and not the other way round, you know? It's the math that explains and helps you understand why something in physics is true, and not the other way round. The proof of a statement is just that; it explains exactly why a statement is true.