Is there any hope of a high-level explanation of why the fraction $\frac{1}{4}$
plays such a prominent role as a
sectional curvature
bound in Riemannian geometry?
My (dim) understanding is that the idea is that if the sectional curvature of a manifold is
constrained to be close to 1, then the manifold must be topologically a (homeomorphic to the)
sphere $S^n$.
Conjectured by Hopf and Rauch, proved by Berger and Klingenberg, and strengthened by
Brendel and Schoen to establish diffeomorphism to $S^n$.
Here is the definition of "local" $\frac{1}{4}$-pinched from
Brendel and Schoen's paper "Manifolds with $1/4$-pinched curvature
are space forms"
(J. Amer. Math. Soc., 22(1): 287-307, January 2009;
PDF):
We will say that a manifold $M$ has pointwise $1/4$-pinched sectional curvatures if $M$ has positive sectional curvature and for every point $p \in M$ the ratio of the maximum to the minimum sectional curvature at that point is less than 4.
I know the "$\frac{1}{4}$" in the
$\frac{1}{4}$-pinched sphere theorem
is optimal,
and perhaps that is the answer to my question: $\frac{1}{4}$ appears because the theorem
is false otherwise—punkt!
But I am wondering if there is a high-level intelligble reason for the appearance of $\frac{1}{4}$,
rather than, say, $\frac{3}{8}$, or $\frac{e}{\pi^2}$ for that matter?
I am aware this is a "fishing expedition," and a fair response is:
Study the Brendel-Schoen proof closely, and enlightenment will follow!
Best Answer
The new proofs add a layer of complication that is unnecessary for your question. From Cheeger and Ebin, Comparison Theorems in Riemannian Geometry first paragraph of Chapter 6:
Back in chapter 3, page 73,
Then they begin the example, which is numbered Example 3.38. The punchline is that $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are orthogonal unit vectors, $J(\alpha)$ and $\beta$ are unit real vectors, so their real inner product lies between $-1$ and $1$ by Cauchy-Schwarz, followed by an identity about the sectional curvature that I shall write as $$ K_{\alpha \beta} = \frac{1}{4} + \frac{3}{4} \langle J(\alpha), \beta \rangle^2. $$