[Math] Why is the integral of the second chern class an integer

chern-classesconnectionsvector-bundles

I'm currently reading the paper "Holonomy, the Quantum Adiabatic Theorem, and Berry's Phase" by Barry Simon.

Imagine a vector bundle with a connection $\nabla$. For simplicity, we assume that this is a $U(1)$ vector bundle. Parallel transport gives rise to the holonomy group, which assigns to each curve $C$ a number $e^{i\gamma(C)}$ that indicates how a vector is "rotated" when transporting it along the curve. In turns out that the phase change $\gamma(C)$ can be expressed as an integral of the curvature form over any surface $S$ that delimits the curve, $C = \partial S$,

$$ \gamma(C) = \int_{S} F^{\nabla} .$$

I am interested in the integral of the curvature form over the whole manifold, which turns out to be an integer multiple of $2\pi$,

$$ \int_{M} F^{\nabla} = 2\pi k, k\in\mathbb{Z}$$

Simon notes that this "standard fact" is a consistency condition on the holonomy group. I can understand that: integrating over the whole manifold is like taking the holonomy of the constant path, which must be the identity.

What I would like to understand is the generalization to higher Chern classes. For instance,

Why is the integral of the second Chern form an integer multiple of $4\pi^2$?

$$ \int_{M} F^{\nabla}\wedge F^{\nabla} = 4\pi^2 k, k\in\mathbb{Z}$$

I have a pedestrian proof for special cases, but I would like to understand a general reason behind this phenomenon. Is there a "higher holonomy" at work here?

Obviously, my knowledge of vector bundles and characteristic classes is rather limited. I can find my way around the book "From Calculus to Cohomology", but have by no means absorbed all the material. Basically, my question is why the Chern classes defined via connections are normalized with a factor of $1/(2\pi)^k$.

Best Answer

Greg,

I realize that I may as well write an answer rather than a series of comments. Although Jessica has given a good answer, I'll try to say this as concretely as possible, since I now think I understand the question more clearly. The question was actually about the integrality of $$\frac{1}{4\pi^2}\int_M F\wedge F$$ where $F$ is the curvature of line bundle $V$ on a $4$-manifold $M$. This is what mathematicians (I'm assuming you're a physicist) would call $c_1(V)^2$. The first thing is observe that $c_1(V)\in H^2(M,\mathbb{Z})$, and that it's image in de Rham cohomology is given by $1/(2\pi i)[F]$. To see this in explicit terms, note that the classifying space for line bundles in $\mathbb{C}\mathbb{P}^\infty$. This implies that the $V$ is the pull back of the tautological bundle under a $C^\infty$ map $f:M\to \mathbb{C}\mathbb{P}^N$, for $N\gg 0$. Working on projective space, we can check integrality of the class $1/(2\pi i)[F]$ by doing a direct calculation to see that this integrates to $1$ over a complex line (aka $2$-sphere). This suffices because the line generates $H_2(\mathbb{C}\mathbb{P}^N)$. After this, $c_1(V)^2=-1/4\pi^2[F]^2$ is automatically integral. That's it.

Postscript: If you are unhappy with the last part, you can replace $f$ with its composition with a generic projection to obtain $f:M\to \mathbb{C}\mathbb{P}^2$. Then your integral becomes the degree of $f$ which is certainly an integer. Hopefully, you can take it from here.

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