[Math] Why is the Frankl conjecture hard

co.combinatorics

This is a naive question that could justifiably be quickly closed.
Nevertheless:

Q. Why is
Péter Frankl's
conjecture so difficult?

If any two sets in some family of sets have a union that also belongs to the family, must some element belong to at least half of the sets in the family?

This has remained unsolved for ~$37$ years.
It seems that, unlike other conjectures (say, concerning prime conjectures), it has not been confirmed for vastly huge sets (just: families of at most $50$ sets).

More specifically, can anyone indicate why this conjecture seems so
difficult to prove or disprove? Why it has withstood assaults so long?

Best Answer

(Migrated by request from the comments.)

Bruhn and Schaud's (2013) The journey of the union-closed sets conjecture provides a rather readable write-up. Particularly relevant is the section Obstacles to a proof; for example, you may check just after Conjecture 15 in which the authors ask (essentially) your question here:

"So, why then has the conjecture withstood more than twenty years of proof attempts?" (p. 14)

Bruhn and Schaud then list three possible techniques of proof, and go into a bit of detail around why they do not seem to work out; these techniques are: injections, local configurations, and averaging.

The paper also provides a few relevant re-formulations using, e.g., lattices, (maximal stable sets of bipartite) graphs, and the "Salzborn" formulation (p. 12). In each case, a re-formulation of the Frankl (or union-closed sets) conjecture brings corresponding ideas and techniques with varying potential; the authors of this particular survey do well by their promise early on:

"The focus of this survey is on the methods employed to attack the conjecture. Our treatment of the literature is therefore somewhat uneven. Whenever we can identify a technique that, to our eyes, seems interesting and potentially powerful we discuss it in greater detail" (p. 3).

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