[Math] Why are cup-i products and Steenrod Squares often (always?) unary

at.algebraic-topologycup-productsteenrod-algebra

One way to define the Steenrod Operations is to use the cup-i product, as in Mosher and Tangora's book. It basically says, given the chain complex from mod-2 homology $C_\ast$, define

$D_0 : C_\ast\to C_\ast\otimes C_\ast$,

so that the cup product is given (on cocycles)

$(u\cup v)(\sigma) = (u\otimes v)(D_0\sigma)$

and then for higher $i$, define $D_i$ so that

$D_{i-1}+\rho D_{i-1} = D_i\partial + \partial D_i$

where $\rho$ is the flipping map. Then the $\cup_i$ product is just

$(u\cup_i u)(\sigma) = (u\otimes u)(D_i\sigma)$

And then define for $[u]\in H^n$

$Sq^{2n-i}([u]) = [u\cup_{i}u]$

This definition seems perfectly well-defined as a binary operation, and yet wherever I've seen it done it has only even been used as a unary operation.

Is there a reason why this is the case, why either the product is undefined as a binary product or not useful as a binary product or just too hard to use?
Is this a dumb question?

Thanks,
-Joseph

Best Answer

I use $\cup_i$ products as binary products in my work on the algebraic theory of surgery

http://www.maths.ed.ac.uk/~aar/papers/ats2.pdf

They give the higher symmetry properties {$\phi_s|s \geq 0$} of the Poincare duality chain equivalence $$\phi_0=[M] \cap - : C(M)^{m-*} \to C(M)$$ of an $m$-dimensional manifold $M$, with $$d\phi_s+\phi_sd^*+\phi_{s-1}+\phi_{s-1}^*=~0~(\phi_{-1}=0)$$ up to sign.