[Math] What are the obstructions to showing that $\zeta$ doesn’t vanish on the strip $1- \varepsilon < {\rm Re}(s) \leq 1$

analytic-number-theorynt.number-theoryriemann-zeta-function

Most (if not all) of the proofs of the Prime Number Theorem that I have seen in the
literature rely on the fact that the Riemann zeta function, $\zeta(s)$, does not vanish
on the line ${\rm Re}(s) = 1$. Since we have a lot of numerical evidence for the validity of RH, one would suspect that for small $\varepsilon$ (to start with) we have that $\zeta(s) \neq 0$ on the strip $1- \varepsilon < {\rm Re}(s) \leq 1$. Does anyone know what are the main difficulties for proving such a result?

Best Answer

As long as a result remains unproved it can be pure speculation about whether it is really hard or just nobody has found the right simple idea, though in this case it seems plausible that the desired nonvanishing is going to be require a profound new idea. (For more on the task of deciding if a problem is hard before it has been solved, look at the answers to the question https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/88709/complex-math-problem-that-is-easy-to-solve.) That the substantial numerical evidence behind RH should somehow be related to mathematicians being able to establish a uniform zero-free strip $1-\varepsilon < {\rm Re}(s) \leq 1$ is sort of like living in a dream world: mere numerical evidence in this case doesn't suggest any idea of how to create a zero-free vertical strip. It doesn't even suggest how to create a zero-free vertical line: look at any proof that $\zeta(s) \not= 0$ on the line ${\rm Re}(s) = 1$ and tell us how numerical data would lead you to such a proof!

If I had to give one simple reason that it's not (apparently) easy to construct a zero-free vertical strip, I'd say it's because the line ${\rm Re}(s) = 1$ is not compact. That is, although we know $\zeta(s) \not= 0$ on ${\rm Re}(s) = 1$, it doesn't immediately follow that $\zeta(s) \not= 0$ on a uniform strip $1-\varepsilon < {\rm Re}(s) \leq 1$ because the line ${\rm Re}(s) = 1$ is not compact.

To see why lack of compactness is relevant, consider the analogues of $\zeta(s)$ defined over finite fields. (Their values are complex, but the data used to construct them relies on geometry in characteristic $p$.) They are power series in $p^{-s}$ where $p$ is the characteristic of the finite field and ${\rm Re}(s) > 1$, and they are in fact rational functions in $p^{-s}$, which provides a meromorphic continuation to $\mathbf C$. Being series in $p^{-s}$, these zeta-functions are periodic in $s$ with period $2\pi{i}/\log p$ and therefore they can be regarded equivalently as power series in the variable $z = p^{-s}$. In the $z$-world, the line ${\rm Re}(s) = 1$ corresponds to the circle $|z| = 1/p$ and the right half-plane ${\rm Re}(s) \geq 1$ corresponds to the disc $|z| \leq 1/p$. (It really corresponds to the punctured disc $0 < |z| \leq 1/p$, but we can fill in the value of the function at the origin using its constant term.) Any circle $|z| = r$ or disc $|z| \leq r$ is compact, so a continuous function on ${\mathbf C}$ that is nonvanishing on $|z| \leq r$ is necessarily nonvanishing on $|z| \leq r+\varepsilon$ for some $\varepsilon > 0$. That extra uniformly larger disc translates back in the $s$-world into an added uniform strip where the function is nonvanishing.

Returning to $\zeta(s)$, since it is nonvanishing on the line ${\rm Re}(s) = 1$ there must be some open set containing that line where $\zeta(s)$ is nonvanishing, but there's no reason you can deduce without some new idea that this open set containing ${\rm Re}(s) = 1$ must contain a strip $1 - \varepsilon < {\rm Re}(s) \leq 1$ for some $\varepsilon > 0$. If ${\rm Re}(s) = 1$ were compact then that deduction would be easy: all open sets containing that line would contain such a strip. (You could make the same argument using the closed half-plane ${\rm Re}(s) \geq 1$ in place of the line ${\rm Re}(s) = 1$: an open set containing ${\rm Re}(s) \geq 1$ doesn't have to contain a half-plane ${\rm Re}(s) > 1-\varepsilon$ for some $\varepsilon > 0$, although it would if ${\rm Re}(s) \geq 1$ were compact.)

Here's another reason that the existence of zero-free vertical strips will probably be hard to prove: there are Dirichlet series that look similar to the $\zeta$-function (e.g., they converge on ${\rm Re}(s) > 1$ and have an analytic continuation and functional equation of a similar type) but they have lots of zeros to the right of the critical line, and can even have zeros in the half-plane ${\rm Re}(s) > 1$. These examples are called Epstein zeta-functions, and unlike $\zeta(s)$ they do not have any known Euler product. Somehow the Euler product for $\zeta(s)$ is probably going to play a crucial role in making progress on an understanding of its zero-free vertical regions.

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