[Math] What are some consequences of zero free strip of the Riemann zeta function

analytic-number-theorynt.number-theoryriemann-hypothesisriemann-zeta-function

A weaker version of the Riemann hypothesis is the claim that if $\zeta(s) = 0$ then $Re(s) \leq 1 – h$ for some constant $h> 0$. What would the consequences be of a result of this type?

Best Answer

If this were proven, it would be a huge breakthrough in number theory. The most direct improvement would of course be a power savings in the error term of $\lvert \pi (x) - \mathrm{Li} (x) \rvert$, but there are many more applications for such things. For example, this would imply that $\zeta \left( \sigma + i t \right) = \mathcal{O} \left( \lvert t \rvert^{\varepsilon} \right)$ for $\sigma \geq 1 - 2 h$, which is a significant improvement on Heath-Brown's bound $\zeta \left( \sigma + i t \right) = \mathcal{O} \left( \lvert t \rvert^{\frac{1}{2} (1 - \sigma)^{\frac{3}{2}} + \varepsilon} \right)$, which (if I recall correctly) is the currently best known bound for values close to $\sigma = 1$. Bounds like this are very useful in all types of applications, where integrals containing the zeta function appear.

Of course, this is just one of many and varied consequences.