Here is a more careful (EDIT: even more careful!) argument that gives an affirmative answer to the weaker version of the question (as stated in the edit to my previous post, I doubt that the stronger version is true).
The argument uses the following lemma, which ought to be known. If someone has a reference, please leave a comment.
Lemma:
Let $a_1,\dots, a_n$ be real numbers with each $a_i\geq 1$, and let $X_1,\dots,X_n$ be independent random variables, each uniform on $\pm 1$. Let $I$ be an interval of length $2r$. Then $$Pr(a_1X_1+\cdots+a_nX_n\in I) \leq \frac{1+r}{\sqrt{\pi n/2}}.$$
Proof:
Let $f(X)$ denote $a_1X_1+\cdots+a_nX_n$.
In the Boolean lattice of all assignments of $\pm 1$ to the variables $X_1,\dots,X_n$, consider a random walk starting from the point where all $X_i$'s are $-1$, and moving in $n$ steps to the point where they are all $+1$, in each step choosing uniformly and independently of the history a variable which is $-1$ and changing it to $+1$.
What is the expectation of the number $N(I)$ of steps of this walk at which $f(X) \in I$? On one hand, $N(I)\leq 1+r$, since $f(X)$ increases by at least 2 in each step.
On the other hand, the probability that the walk passes through any given point in the Boolean lattice is at least $2^{-n}\sqrt{\pi n/2}$ (this probability is minimized at the middle level(s) of the lattice, and the claim follows by well-known estimates of the central binomial coefficient). Therefore
$$EN(I) \geq \frac{\#\{X:f(X)\in I\}}{2^n}\cdot \sqrt{\pi n/2} = Pr(f(X)\in I) \cdot \sqrt{\pi n/2}.$$
It follows that $$Pr(f(X)\in I) \leq \frac{1+r}{\sqrt{\pi n/2}}. \qquad \square$$
As was explained in the earlier post, we can randomly choose $n$ pairs of opposite points $\{z_i, -z_i\}$, then find $z$ with $\left|P(z)P(-z)\right|=1$ given only this information, and finally fix the $z_i$'s by $n$ independent coin flips.
In order to apply the lemma, we want to have, before the coin flipping, $n/2$ pairs $z_i, -z_i$ making an angle of say at most $60$ degrees with $z, -z$, so that each of the $n/2$ corresponding coin flips determine the sign of a term of at least $\log 3$ in $\log\left|P(z)\right| - \log\left|P(-z)\right|$. Actually, after choosing the $n$ pairs $z_i, -z_i$, this a. a. s. holds for every $z$. The idea is to divide the circle into, say, 100 equally large sectors. With high probability, every pair of opposite sectors will contain at least $n/51$ pairs (as opposed to the expected number, $n/50$).
We now condition on the outcomes of the coin flips for the smaller terms (pairs $z_i, -z_i$ more or less orthogonal to $z$). The lemma above tells us that for any interval $I$ of length $4\alpha\sqrt{n}$, the probability that $\log\left|P(z)\right| - \log\left|P(-z)\right| \in I$ is at most $4\alpha/\sqrt{\pi} + O(1/\sqrt{n})$.
In particular, with probability at least $1-O(\alpha)$, the absolute value of $\log\left|P(z)\right| - \log\left|P(-z)\right|$ is at least $2\alpha\sqrt{n}$, and since $\log\left|P(z)\right|=-\log\left|P(-z)\right|$, $\max\left(\log\left|P(z)\right|, \log\left|P(-z)\right|\right)\geq \alpha\sqrt{n}$ as required.
Best Answer
Let's create a proof a la Koosis. All the techniques used below can be found in his book "The Logarithmic Integral".
Take $a>1$ and put $f(z)=a\prod_j(1+z/z_j)^{p_j}$. That is a nice analytic function and, while its absolute value is somewhat hard to understand, its argument is very simple: it is an $n$-piece piecewise linear function on the circle with slope $\frac 12 n$ (with respect to the usual circle length) and jumps at $z_j$. Let $I$ be the image of one of the arcs between two adjacent points $z_j$ and $z_{j+1}$ under the mapping $z\mapsto \operatorname{arg}f(z)$. We can transplant all functions defined on the circle arc $[z_j,z_{j+1}]$ to $I$ using this mapping. Note that the integral of any function over the arc with respect to the circle length is just $2/n$ times the integral of its transplant over $I$ with respect to the line length.
Let $\Phi$ be the transplant of $|f|$. Assume that $\Phi<2$ on $I$. The transplant of $f$ is then just $F(t)=\Phi(t)e^{it}$. The key observation is the following: $$ \int_I \log|2-F(t)|dt\ge \log 2(|I|-\pi). $$ Assuming that it is true, we conclude that the full integral of $\log|2-f|$ over the unit circle is at least $2/n$ times the sum of the right hand sides over the intervals corresponding to all arcs, which is $0$. On the other hand, if $a>1$, then $\log|2-f(0)|=\log|2-a|<0$, so $2-f$ must have a root inside the disk and the maximum principle finishes the story.
Now let us prove the observation claim. The only thing we really know about $\Phi$ is that it is log-concave and, thereby, unimodal. Fortunately, that's all we need. So, in what follows, $\Phi$ will be just any unimodal function on $I$ with values in $[0,2]$. Since we can always extend $\Phi$ by $0$ outside $I$, we can switch to any larger interval we want without making the inequality easier. So, WLOG, $I=[-2\pi n-\frac\pi 2,2\pi n+\frac\pi 2]$
Now, let us observe that for every fixed $t$, the integrand is minimized for $\Phi(t)=2\max(0,\cos t)$ (that is just the nearest point on the line) and that the farther we go away from this optimal value, the larger the integrand is. Therefore, to minimize the left hand side, we need to stay as close to the black regime on the picture (the graph of $2\cos_+ t$) as we can.
Suppose that the actual $\Phi$ is given by the blue line. Then, replacing $\Phi$ by the red line $\Psi$, we come closer to the optimum at every point. But the red line consists of several full periods (horizontal pieces) and several pieces that together constitute one full positive arc of $\cos t$. Now, each full period means running over some circle around the origin, so the average value of $\log|2-\Psi(t)e^{it}|$ over each full period is exactly $\log 2$. At last, the $2\cos t$ part gives $\int_0^\pi\log (2|\sin t|)dt=0$, which is exactly the loss of $\pi \log 2$ compared to $\log 2$ times its length $\pi$.
That's it. Feel free to comment and/or ask questions.