[Math] The interplay between certain aspects of interpretability, model theory and category theory

ct.category-theorylo.logicmodel-theoryreference-request

I have some questions about the interplay of interpretability, model theory and category theory. Since I had difficulties in finding literature or other helpful information about this topic, it would be great if somebody of you can help me.

For a first-order theory $T$, let $Mod(T)$ denote the category of all models of $T$ where the arrows are the homomorphisms (or – if you want so – take the elementary embeddings). Let $I_T$ denote the spectrum of $T$. That is, $I_T$ is a function which takes some cardinal $\kappa$ as argument and which outputs the number of non-isomorphic models of $T$ having cardinality $\kappa$. I will also refer to the syntactical notion of interpretability (i.e. "theory $T_1$ interprets theory $T_2$") and mutual interpretability ("$T_1$ interprets $T_2$ and vice versa"). For what follows, assume that $T_1$ and $T_2$ are arbitrary first-order theories. Here are the three questions for which I would like to know whether there are any answers:

  1. Are $Mod(T_1)$ and $Mod(T_2)$ equivalent (in the category theoretical sense) whenever $T_1$ and $T_2$ are mutually interpretable? Does the converse holds?

  2. Are $Mod(T_1)$ and $Mod(T_2)$ equivalent (in the category theoretical sense) whenever $I_{T_1}=I_{T_2}$? Does the converse holds?

  3. Does $I_{T_1}=I_{T_2}$ holds whenever $T_1$ and $T_2$ are mutually interpretable? Does the converse holds?

I will be grateful for any comments, answers and also for references to literature (papers, books,…) in which these questions or similar ones are discussed. Thank you!

Note that I do not expect that these questions are "profound conjectures" or something like that. Maybe that among the experts, their answers are already known and even "trivial". I was just thinking about some model theoretical topics and in this context, the three questions from above started to occupy me. Since I am not able to find any literature concerned with similar questions, I just would like to know whether there are some people in this forum who know more than I do and could share their knowledge with me.

Edit: Following some remarks of some of the commentators of this post, the above questions may also be interesting if we replace "mutual interpretable" with "bi-interpretable".

Best Answer

Here is a negative answer to question 2 and the converse of question 3.

Let $T_1$ be the theory of the integers under successor $\langle\mathbb{Z},S\rangle$. This theory asserts that $S$ is bijective and has no cycles of any finite length. That theory is complete, since all models of size $\aleph_1$ are isomorphic, consisting of $\aleph_1$ many $\mathbb{Z}$-chains, and more generally there is only one model of uncountable size $\kappa$ for any uncountable $\kappa$. But there are countably infinite many countable models up to isomorphism, since every model consists of some countable number of $\mathbb{Z}$-chains. So $I_{T_1}$ is the function that says there are $\aleph_0$ many countably infinite models, but only one model each in any uncountable cardinality.

Let $T_2$ be the theory of infinitely many distinct constants $c_n$. There are countably infinitely many countable models of this theory, depending on the number of objects in the model that are not the interpretation of any $c_n$, but there is only one model up to isomorphism in any uncountable cardinality, since any model of size $\kappa$ has the distinct $c_n$'s and then $\kappa$ many additional points.

Thus, both of these theories have the same number of models in any cardinality: no finite models, $\aleph_0$ many countable models, one model in each uncountable cardinality. So $I_{T_1}=I_{T_2}$.

But $T_1$ is not interpretable in $T_2$, since if it were, the interpretation would involve only finitely many constants, but one can define only finitely many points in a model of the reduct of $T_2$ to those finitely many constants plus one parameter, whereas in any model of $T_1$, we can define infinitely many points relative to any parameter. So this is a counterexample to the converse of question 3.

Note also that $T_1$ has no rigid models, since every $\mathbb{Z}$-chain admits translations, but $T_2$ has two rigid models, namely, the model with only the constants, and the model with the constants plus one more point. (Also, $T_2$ has models with only finitely many automorphisms.) These features show that $\text{Mod}(T_1)$ and $\text{Mod}(T_2)$ are not equivalent as categories, so this provides a negative instance to question 2.