[Math] Supersingular elliptic curve dilemma

ag.algebraic-geometryelliptic-curvesnt.number-theory

Let $E$ be a supersingular elliptic curve over a finite field of
characteristic $p$, and $\mathbb{F}_q\supset \mathbb{F}_{p^2}$ be a finite field large enough such
that all (absolute) endomorphisms of $E$ is defined over $\mathbb{F}_q$.
We write $G$ for the absolute Galois group of $\mathbb{F}_q$. It is well known that the Frobenius automorphism $\varphi$ is a (topological) generator of $G$. Let us fix a prime $\ell\neq
p$. By the Tate Conjecture,
$$\mathrm{End}(E)\otimes\mathbb{Q}_\ell=\mathrm{End}_{\mathbb{Q}_\ell}(V_\ell(E))^G=\mathrm{End}_{\mathbb{Q}_\ell}(V_\ell(E))^\varphi. $$

Since $E$ is supersingular, $\mathrm{End}(E)$ is an order in a quaternion
algebra. In particular, $\mathrm{rank}_\mathbb{Z}(\mathrm{End}(E))=4$. So
$$ \mathrm{End}(E)\otimes\mathbb{Q}_\ell=\mathrm{End}_{\mathbb{Q}_\ell}(V_\ell(E))$$
It follows that $\varphi$ is in the center of
$\mathrm{End}_{\mathbb{Q}_\ell}(V_\ell(E))$. In other words, $\varphi$ is a
scalar. This clearly leads to a contradiction (say, with the Riemann
Hypothesis). Where did the argument go wrong?

Best Answer

There is nothing wrong. A typical case will be $\mathbb F_q = \mathbb F_{p^2}$ and $\varphi = -p$. Since $q^{1/2} = (p^2)^{1/2} = p$, this is consistent with RH.

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