[Math] Lindelöf hypothesis claim

analytic-number-theoryca.classical-analysis-and-odesnt.number-theory

I was randomly browsing, when I found this puff piece claiming a proof of the Lindelöf hypothesis by Fokas. Note that the Wikipedia article says that he claimed, then withdrew his claim in 2017, but the USC piece is dated June 25 2018. So, what is the truth?

Best Answer

(Not an answer of any sort, just too long for a comment.) The main result seems to be an integral equation (1.3) of the form $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty K(t,\tau) |\zeta(\tfrac{1}{2}+it\tau)|^2\,d\tau={\mathcal G}(t)$$ with some explicit functions $K$ and ${\mathcal G}$. This equation (if true) is presumably new, and may be interesting.

However, in my view, how interesting it is would depend quite a bit on whether $|\zeta(\tfrac{1}{2}+it\tau)|^2$ is the only solution of it. This sort of integral operators may have kernels, and if it is the case then it would be rather difficult to squeeze the Lindelöf hypothesis out of it. (If I were the author then this is where I would look.)

P.S. For those who have read ``puff piece'': As pointed out by Robert Israel, indeed, in the (this far, latest) version 4 a proof of the Lindelöf hypothesis is not claimed.

P.P.S Take the above with a pinch of salt; the last time I was involved with this subject was decades ago.