[Math] Isomorphism between a filtered vector space and its associated graded

linear algebrara.rings-and-algebrasrt.representation-theory

$\DeclareMathOperator\gr{gr}$Let $ V $ be a vector space with a decreasing filtration
$$
V = F_0 V \supseteq F_1 V \supseteq F_2 V \supseteq\dotsb .$$

We define the associated graded of $ V $ to be $$ \gr V := \bigoplus_{k=0}^\infty F_k V / F_{k+1} V. $$
Of course $ \gr V $ can also be regarded as a filtered vector space and we have a canonical isomorphism $\gr (\gr V) = \gr V $.

We say that $ V $ “admits an expansion” if there is an isomorphism of filtered vector spaces between $ \gr V $ and $ V $, which becomes the identity map after applying $ \gr $ to both $ \gr V $ and $ V $.

This condition is equivalent to the existence of subspaces $ W_k \subset F_k V $ such that $ F_k V = W_k \oplus F_{k+1} V $ and $ V = \bigoplus_k W_k $.

Note that not every filtered vector space admits an expansion. For example, the vector space $ V = \mathbb C[[x]] $ with the filtration $ F_k V = x^k \mathbb C[[x]]$ does not admit an expansion. On the other hand, $ V = \mathbb C[x] $ with the same filtration does admit an expansion.

Here are my questions:

  1. Does this property have a different name in the literature?
  2. Let $V$, $W $ be two filtered vector spaces which admit expansions. Suppose that I have a filtration-preserving map $ \phi : V \rightarrow W $ such that $ \gr \phi : \gr V \rightarrow \gr W $ is an isomorphism. Can I conclude that $ \phi $ is an isomorphism?

Best Answer

Too long for a comment, I was wondering about the cost of completely unfolding Darij's excellent argument. In fact, we have a characterisation of that sort of perturbations of identity that are isomorphisms. The statement is as follows
Lemma. Let $k$ be a field and $x$ an indeterminate. For every $Q\in k[x]$, let $f_Q$ be the morphism of $k[x]$ sending $x$ to $x+x^2Q$. Then $f_Q$ is an isomorphism iff $Q=0$.
Proof. One way being obvious (if $Q=0$ $f_Q=Id$), it is sufficient to prove that, if $Q\not=0$ then $x\notin Im(f_Q)=f_Q(k[x])$.
It is not difficult to see that $Im(f_Q)$ is a subalgebra as follows $$Im(f_Q)\subset k\oplus (x+x^2Q)k[x]$$ which does not contain $x$ (indeed $P\in Im(f_Q)$ implies that $P(x)-P(0)$ can be divided by $(x+x^2Q)$ which is true for $P=x$ iff $Q=0$).

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