Let $R$ be a commutative ring and let $A_1$ and $A_2$ be (not necessarily commutative) $R$-algebras. Under which conditions on $A_1$ and $A_2$ is the following true:
For every projective $A_1$-module $P_1$ and every projective $A_2$-module $P_2$ we have that $P_1\otimes_R P_2$ is projective as a $A_1\otimes_R A_2$-module?
For instance, what about the case when $A_1$ and $A_2$ are projective over $R$? Or else, does it help if $Tor_R(A_1,A_2)$ vanishes?
I am also looking for counterexamples for the general case.
Best Answer
Since $P_1$ is projective there exists $Q_1$ $A_1$-module and an isomorphism $$ P_1\oplus Q_1 = A_1^{\oplus I_1}$$ for some index set $I_2$. Analogously there exists $Q_2$ $A_2$-module and an index set $I_2$ such that $$ P_2\oplus Q_2 = A_2^{\oplus I_2} $$ Tensoring the two previous relations $$P_1 \otimes P_2 \oplus (P_1\otimes Q_2 \oplus Q_1\otimes P_2 \oplus Q_1\otimes Q_2) = A_1^{\oplus I_1}\otimes A_2^{\oplus I_2} = (A_1\otimes A_2)^{\oplus I_1\times I_2}$$ So $P_1\otimes P_2$ is a direct summand of a free $A_1\otimes A_2$-module and so it is projective.