[Math] Is Langlands reciprocity somehow analogous to the wave-particle duality of quantum mechanics

langlands-conjecturesquantum mechanics

Apologies for the vague question, and for the many inaccuracies (I am not a physicist and barely a number theorist).

In physics, there is the notion of gauge group of a field theory. The gauge group is the symmetry group of the Lagrangian describing the theory. It is the "symmetry group of reality" in a reality dictated by the Lagrangian.

On the other hand, the Galois group $G_{\mathbf Q}$ also occurs as the symmetry group of a theory, namely of the theory of algebraic varieties over ${\mathbf Q}$. We might like to think of it as the symmetry group of a hidden "arithmetic field theory" attached to $\mathbf Q$.

Irreducible representations of the gauge group of a field theory can be interpreted as elementary particles of a certain kind (the gauge bosons of the field theory); for this reason, people have said that adequate Galois representations of $G_{\mathbf Q}$ could be thought of as elementary particles (I believe I read this from Brian Conrad).

Elementary particles, however, can also be viewed as incarnations of their wave functions $f \in \Psi$. Moreover, suppose that we have a complete set of commuting observables $\{T_n :\Psi \to \Psi\}$. Let $\mathbf T$ be the $\mathbf Z$-algebra of $End(\Psi)$ generated by the $T_i$'s. Then it is natural to think that the simultaneous eigenfunctions of $\mathbf T$ should be precisely the wave functions of the gauge bosons: if two wave functions look the same under every element of our complete set of observables $\mathbf T$, then they should actually be indistinguishible.

An analogous situation on the arithmetic side is the following: start with the Tate motive $M$ of an elliptic curve $E/\mathbf Q$. Then, according to the modularity theorem, we can attach a "wave function" to the "elementary particle" $M$, namely the Hecke eigenform $f$ associated to $E/\mathbf Q$. Here of course $\mathbf T$ is the Hecke algebra. We can reconstruct the elementary particle $M$ from its wave function, using the algebra of observables $\mathbf T$ (Eichler-Shimura theory).

Thus, it appears to me that the passage from Galois representations to automorphic forms is analogous to the passage from "particle" to "wave" in quantum mechanics.

Is this right?

If so, what more can be said about this?

Best Answer

I don't know enough about Langlands reciprocity to answer your question as asked, but the following might be helpful in thinking about the connection you are asking about.

There is by now a well understood connection between the geometric Langlands correspondence and S-duality of a topologically twisted version of $N=4$ Super Yang Mills theory (SYM) formulated on four manifolds of the form $ \Sigma \times X$ with $X$ a closed Riemann surface. Taking $X$ to be "small" leads to a two-dimensional topological field theory on $\Sigma$ and the S-duality of $N=4$ SYM becomes a kind of mirror symmetry of the topological field theory that relates the theory with gauge group $G$ to one with its Langlands dual ${}^LG$. This point of view was developed by Kapustin and Witten and is explained by E. Frenkel in arXiv:0906.2747.

The connection of this to particle-wave duality in quantum mechanics is as follows. S-duality of $N=4$ Super Yang-Mills theory has its origin in the electric-magnetic duality of pure Maxwell theory in $R^4$. Maxwell's equations with vanishing charge density and current sources are invariant under the transformation $\vec E \rightarrow \vec B$, $\vec B \rightarrow - \vec E$ of the electric field $\vec E $ and the magnetic field $\vec B$. This transformation is very analogous to the following transformation on the coordinate $x$ and momentum $p$ of a one-dimensional simple harmonic oscillator (SHO) $ x \rightarrow p$, $p \rightarrow -x$ and this duality transformation is a symmetry of the simple harmonic oscillator Hamiltonian $H= p^2/2+x^2/2$. In the quantum theories this analogy can be made precise by decomposing the electromagnetic field into modes and applying canonical quantization.

Now this symmetry of the SHO should be regarded as the statement that the SHO is self-dual under particle wave duality. The particle aspects are most clearly thought of in coordinate space while the wave aspects are most obvious in momentum space obtained by Fourier transform. Put another way, a particle is localized in $x$, a wave is localized in the canonical dual variable $p$. The self-duality of the SHO under particle-wave duality is manifested in various ways. For example, the ground state wave function of the SHO is a Gaussian in coordinate space. The dual under the above transformation gives the ground state wave function in momentum space since the Fourier transform of a Gaussian is again a Gaussian.

So I claim these is a connection between (geometric) Langlands and wave-particle duality that runs as particle-wave duality of SHO-> electric-magnetic duality of Maxwell theory -> S-duality of N=4 SYM -> Langlands. I leave it someone more knowledgeable to say whether this connection means anything in the number theoretical context.

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