[Math] Induction of tensor product vs. tensor product of inductions

rt.representation-theorytensor-products

This is a pure curiosity question and may turn out completely devoid of substance.

Let $G$ be a finite group and $H$ a subgroup, and let $V$ and $W$ be two representations of $H$ (representations are finite-dimensional per definitionem, at least per my definitions). With $\otimes$ denoting inner tensor product, how are the two representations $\mathrm{Ind}^G_H\left(V\otimes W\right)$ and $\mathrm{Ind}^G_HV\otimes \mathrm{Ind}^G_HW$ are related to each other? There is a fairly obvious map of representations from the latter to the former, but it is neither injective nor surjective in general. I am wondering whether we can say anything about the decompositions of the two representations into irreducibles.

Best Answer

Surely you mean "former to latter"?

I think the natural map is injective. Let $V$ and $W$ have bases $v_1,\ldots,v_r$ and $w_1,\ldots,w_s$ respectively. Let $g_1,\ldots,g_t$ be coset representatives for $H$ in $G$. Then a basis for $\mathrm{Ind}_H^G V\otimes \mathrm{Ind}_H^G W$ consists of the $(v_i g_k)\otimes(w_j g_l)$. The image of the natural injection from $\mathrm{Ind}_H^G(V\otimes W)$ is spanned by the $(v_i g_k)\otimes(w_j g_l)$ with $k=l$. There are exactly the right number of these.

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